Nursing Elites

1. Why might breast implants interfere with mammography?

• A. They might cause additional discomfort.
• B. They are contraindications to mammography.
• C. They are likely to be dislodged.
• D. They might prevent detection of masses.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Breast implants can interfere with mammography by potentially preventing the detection of masses. The presence of implants can obscure a clear view of breast tissue, making it difficult to identify abnormalities such as masses that may indicate breast cancer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because discomfort, contraindications, and dislodgment are not primary reasons why breast implants interfere with mammography. The main concern is the impedance of detecting abnormalities accurately due to the implants.

2. In a disaster triage situation, which of the following should the nurse be least concerned with regarding a client in crisis?

• A. ability to breathe
• B. pallor or cyanosis of the skin
• C. number of accompanying family members
• D. motor function

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a disaster triage situation where quick decisions are crucial, the nurse's primary focus should be on factors directly related to the patient's immediate condition and survival. The ability to breathe, pallor or cyanosis of the skin, and motor function are critical indicators of a patient's health status and need for urgent intervention. In contrast, the number of accompanying family members, although important for emotional support, is not a priority when assessing and prioritizing care during a crisis. While emotional support is valuable, the focus in triage is on identifying and addressing the most critical and life-threatening issues first to maximize survival chances. Therefore, the nurse should be least concerned with the number of accompanying family members as it does not directly impact the patient's immediate medical needs in a crisis situation. Choices A, B, and D are all crucial factors to assess a client's health status and determine the urgency of intervention during a disaster triage. The ability to breathe indicates respiratory function, pallor or cyanosis of the skin reflect circulatory and oxygenation status, and motor function can hint at neurological impairment or injury, all of which are vital in determining the severity of the crisis and the immediate medical needs of the patient.

3. Which is the proper hand position for performing chest vibration?

• A. cup the hands
• B. use the side of the hands
• C. flatten the hands
• D. spread the fingers of both hands

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct hand position for performing chest vibration is to flatten the hands. By flattening the hands over the area of the body where chest percussion is applied, vibrations can be conducted effectively to the chest to help loosen secretions. Cupping the hands may dampen vibrations, using the side of the hands reduces the surface area in contact with the chest, and spreading the fingers can lead to uneven pressure distribution. Therefore, flattening the hands provides the necessary contact and surface area to perform chest vibration efficiently.

4. A client has experienced a CVA with right hemiparesis and is ready for discharge from the hospital to a long-term care facility for rehab. To provide optimal continuity of care, the nurse should do all of the following except:

• A. document the current functional status
• B. have the physician fax a report to the receiving facility
• C. copy appropriate parts of the medical record for transport to the receiving facility
• D. phone a report to the facility

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure optimal continuity of care for a client transitioning to a long-term care facility for rehab after a CVA, the nurse plays a crucial role in communication. Documenting the current functional status is essential for the receiving facility to plan appropriate care. Copying relevant parts of the medical record for transport provides important background information. Phoning a report directly to the facility is a direct and effective way to communicate the client's condition and care plan. However, having the physician fax a report to the receiving facility introduces an extra step that may delay essential information transfer and increase the risk of miscommunication. Therefore, it is not the optimal choice for ensuring seamless continuity of care.

5. Which of the following symptoms is not indicative of autonomic dysreflexia in the client with a spinal cord injury?

• A. sudden onset of headache
• B. flushed face
• C. hypotension
• D. nasal congestion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is characterized by a sudden onset of symptoms due to an overactive autonomic nervous system. Hypotension is not indicative of autonomic dysreflexia; instead, hypertension is a hallmark sign. Therefore, hypotension is the correct answer. Flushed face, sudden onset of headache, and nasal congestion are classic symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia caused by a noxious stimulus below the level of the spinal cord injury. These symptoms result from the body's attempt to regulate blood pressure when the normal feedback loop is interrupted.

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