Nursing Elites

1. A rubella titer is performed on a pregnant client, and the results indicate a titer of less than 1:8. The nurse provides the client with which information?

• A. She must have been exposed to the rubella virus at some point in her life.
• B. The test will need to be repeated during the pregnancy.
• C. She has not developed immunity to the rubella virus.
• D. The test results are normal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A rubella titer of less than 1:8 indicates that the client is not immune to rubella. In such cases, retesting will be necessary during the pregnancy. If the client is found to be non-immune, rubella immunization is required post-delivery. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A suggests exposure, which cannot be confirmed by the titer result. Choice C wrongly implies that the client has not developed immunity, which is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as the titer result is not within the normal immune range.

2. Which of the following foods is a complete protein?

• A. corn
• B. eggs
• C. peanuts
• D. sunflower seeds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Eggs are considered a complete protein because they contain all nine essential amino acids required by the human body. In contrast, corn, peanuts, and sunflower seeds are incomplete proteins as they lack one or more essential amino acids. Corn, although a staple food for many cultures, is deficient in the amino acids lysine and tryptophan. Peanuts are low in the amino acid methionine, and sunflower seeds are low in lysine. Therefore, eggs are the correct answer as a complete protein source.

3. An amniocentesis is scheduled for a pregnant client in the third trimester. The nurse informs the client that the most common indication for amniocentesis during the third trimester is for which reason?

• A. Determination of whether alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is present in the amniotic fluid
• B. Checking the amniotic fluid for intrauterine infection
• C. Determination of fetal lung maturity
• D. Checking the fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most common indication for amniocentesis in the third trimester is the determination of fetal lung maturity. This assessment is essential to evaluate the fetus's readiness for extrauterine life. Checking for alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in the amniotic fluid is more commonly associated with midtrimester amniocentesis to identify chromosomal abnormalities. Assessing for intrauterine infection is not a primary reason for amniocentesis in the third trimester. While checking fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities is a common indication for midtrimester amniocentesis, it is not the most common indication in the third trimester.

4. The nurse, assisting with data collection of the abdomen, inspects the client’s abdomen. Which assessment technique should the nurse perform next?

• A. Percussion
• B. Auscultation
• C. Light palpation
• D. Deep palpation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is auscultation. The assessment techniques used for a physical examination are inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation. These techniques are normally performed in this order. However, in the abdominal examination, auscultation is performed after inspection and before palpation and percussion. This order is specific to the abdomen because palpation and percussion can increase peristalsis, leading to a false interpretation of bowel sounds. Therefore, auscultation is performed before palpation and percussion in abdominal assessments to ensure accurate bowel sound assessment. Percussion and palpation are performed after auscultation in abdominal assessments. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as auscultation is the next assessment technique to perform after inspection in abdominal assessments, followed by palpation and percussion.

5. Which of the following physical findings indicates that an 11-12-month-old child is at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

• A. refusal to walk
• B. not pulling to a standing position
• C. negative Trendelenburg sign
• D. negative Ortolani sign

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'not pulling to a standing position.' An 11-12-month-old child not pulling to a standing position may be at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip. By this age, children typically pull to a standing position, and failure to do so should raise concerns. Refusal to walk is a broader observation and not specific to hip dysplasia. The Trendelenburg sign indicates weakness of the gluteus medius muscle, not hip dysplasia. The Ortolani sign is used to detect congenital subluxation or dislocation of the hip, which is different from developmental dysplasia of the hip.

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