NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX Questions
1. A rubella titer is performed on a pregnant client, and the results indicate a titer of less than 1:8. The nurse provides the client with which information?
- A. She must have been exposed to the rubella virus at some point in her life.
- B. The test will need to be repeated during the pregnancy.
- C. She has not developed immunity to the rubella virus.
- D. The test results are normal.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A rubella titer of less than 1:8 indicates that the client is not immune to rubella. In such cases, retesting will be necessary during the pregnancy. If the client is found to be non-immune, rubella immunization is required post-delivery. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A suggests exposure, which cannot be confirmed by the titer result. Choice C wrongly implies that the client has not developed immunity, which is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as the titer result is not within the normal immune range.
2. While taking the vital signs of a pregnant client admitted to the labor unit, a nurse notes a temperature of 100.6°F, pulse rate of 100 beats/min, and respirations of 24 breaths/min. What is the most appropriate nursing action based on these findings?
- A. Notify the registered nurse of the findings.
- B. Document the findings in the client's medical record.
- C. Recheck the vital signs in 1 hour.
- D. Continue collecting subjective and objective data.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the registered nurse of the findings. In a pregnant client, the normal temperature range is 98°F to 99.6°F, with a pulse rate of 60 to 90 beats/min and respirations of 12 to 20 breaths/min. A temperature of 100.4°F or higher, along with an increased pulse rate and faster respirations, suggests a possible infection. Immediate notification of the registered nurse is crucial for further evaluation and intervention. While documenting the findings is essential, the priority lies in promptly escalating abnormal vital signs for assessment and management. Rechecking vital signs in 1 hour may delay necessary interventions for a deteriorating condition. Continuing to collect data is relevant but should not delay informing the registered nurse when abnormal vital signs are present.
3. A client complains that her skin is redder than normal. The nurse notes the client's skin, documents hyperemia, and explains to the client that this condition is caused by which factor?
- A. Constriction of the underlying blood vessels
- B. An increased amount of bilirubin in the blood
- C. Increased perfusion of the surrounding tissues
- D. Excess blood in the dilated superficial capillaries
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hyperemia is an excess of blood in a part of the body. The skin over a hyperemic area usually becomes reddened or warm. The condition is caused by increased blood flow, local relaxation of arterioles, or obstruction of the outflow of blood from an area. Choice A is incorrect because constriction of blood vessels would lead to decreased blood flow, not excess blood. Choice B is incorrect as an increased amount of bilirubin in the blood is related to jaundice, not hyperemia. Choice C is incorrect because increased perfusion of the surrounding tissues would cause redness, not hyperemia.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health care record of a client who has just undergone an examination of the internal genitalia. Which documented finding indicates an abnormality?
- A. The cervix is pink.
- B. The cervix is midline.
- C. The cervix is about 1 inch in diameter.
- D. Clear secretions with a foul odor are noted on the cervix.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Clear secretions with a foul odor are noted on the cervix.' Normally, the cervix is pink, midline, and about 1 inch in diameter. Depending on the day of the menstrual cycle, secretions may vary. However, they should always be odorless and nonirritating. Secretions with a foul odor are indicative of an infection, making this finding abnormal. Choices A, B, and C describe normal cervix characteristics, so they do not indicate an abnormality in this scenario.
5. The nurse is observing a client self-administer two crushable medications through their G-tube. Which of the following would indicate a need for further instruction?
- A. The client flushes the G-tube before administering the medications, in between the two medications, and after the medications.
- B. The client states they will remain in the Semi-Fowler's position for 30 minutes following the administration of the medications.
- C. The client mixes each medication separately in warm water.
- D. The client mixes their medications with their tube-feeding formula.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that the client mixes their medications with their tube-feeding formula. Medications should not be mixed with tube-feeding formula or other medications as it may alter their effectiveness. The G-tube should be flushed before, between, and after the medications to prevent clogging and ensure proper administration. The client should remain in the Semi-Fowler's position for at least 30 minutes after medication administration to prevent reflux. Choice B is correct as it aligns with the proper post-administration positioning. Choices A and C are incorrect as flushing the G-tube before, between, and after medications, and mixing each medication separately in warm water are appropriate procedures that do not indicate a need for further instruction.
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