which of the following foods should be avoided by clients who are prone to develop heartburn as a result of gastroesophgeal reflux disease gerd
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NCLEX-PN

NCLEX PN Practice Questions Quizlet

1. Which of the following foods should be avoided by clients who are prone to developing heartburn as a result of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is chocolate. Ingestion of chocolate can reduce lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure, leading to reflux and clinical symptoms of GERD. Lettuce, eggs, and butterscotch do not affect LES pressure and are less likely to trigger heartburn in individuals with GERD. Therefore, clients who are prone to developing heartburn due to GERD should avoid consuming chocolate to manage their symptoms effectively.

2. When a client describes their family as having multiple wives, all of whom are sisters, married to one man, the nurse documents the family structure as?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'soronal.' The practice of polygamy refers to having multiple wives or husbands. When there are multiple wives who are sisters, the polygamy is designated as sororal. Polyandry refers to multiple husbands, which is rare. Nonsororal polygamy is when the wives are not sisters. Sororate polygamy specifies that a husband must marry his wife’s sister if she dies. Therefore, in this scenario, the family structure described by the client fits the definition of soronal polygamy.

3. All of the following are common reasons that nurses are reluctant to delegate except:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'confidence in subordinates.' If a delegator has confidence in their subordinates' abilities, they are more likely to delegate tasks. Reasons why nurses are reluctant to delegate include their own lack of self-confidence, the desire to maintain authority, and getting trapped in the 'I can do it better myself' mindset. Therefore, having confidence in subordinates is not a common reason for reluctance to delegate.

4. A client, age 28, is 8 1/2 months pregnant. She is most likely to display which normal skin-color variation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chloasma, also known as the mask of pregnancy, is described as tan-to-brown patches on the face. This hyperpigmentation results from hormonal changes during pregnancy. Vitiligo is characterized by depigmented patches, erythema is redness of the skin due to increased blood flow, and cyanosis is a bluish discoloration due to poor circulation or lack of oxygen, none of which are typical skin-color variations during pregnancy. Therefore, in a pregnant client, the most likely normal skin-color variation to be displayed is chloasma.

5. A nurse assisting with data collection is testing the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve (cranial nerve VIII). Which action does the nurse take to test this nerve?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To test the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve (cranial nerve VIII), the nurse should have the client close their eyes and indicate when a ticking watch is heard as the nurse moves the watch closer to the client's ear. This action assesses the client's ability to perceive auditory stimuli, as the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve is responsible for hearing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Asking the client to raise their eyebrows to check for symmetry is a method to test the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII). Asking the client to clench their teeth and palpating the masseter muscles tests the motor component of the trigeminal nerve. Having the client identify light and sharp touch on both sides of the face is a way to test the sensory component of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V).

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