Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a pregnant client in the labor unit who suddenly experiences spontaneous rupture of the membranes. On inspecting the amniotic fluid, the nurse notes that it is clear, with creamy white flecks. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take based on this finding?

• A. Check the client's temperature.
• B. Report the findings to the nurse-midwife.
• C. Obtain a sample of the amniotic fluid for laboratory analysis.
• D. Document the findings.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Amniotic fluid should be clear and may include bits of vernix, the creamy white fetal skin lubricant. Therefore, the nurse would most appropriately document the findings. Checking the client's temperature, reporting the findings to the nurse-midwife, and obtaining a sample of the amniotic fluid for laboratory analysis are not necessary in this situation. Cloudy, yellow, or foul-smelling amniotic fluid suggests infection, while green fluid indicates that the fetus passed meconium before birth. If abnormalities are noted, the nurse should notify the nurse-midwife.

2. At what age are yearly mammograms recommended to start?

• A. Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 25.
• B. Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 40.
• C. Yearly mammograms are not necessary unless there is a family history of breast cancer.
• D. Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 20 and continuing until menopause begins.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The American Cancer Society recommends yearly mammograms starting at age 40 and continuing for as long as a woman is in good health. Clinical breast examination should be done about every 3 years for women in their 20s and 30s and every year for women age 40 and older. Women should know how their breasts normally look and feel and report any breast change promptly to the healthcare provider. Breast self-examination should be done monthly starting when a woman is in her 20s. Choice A is incorrect as mammograms are not recommended to start at age 25. Choice C is incorrect as yearly mammograms are still recommended even without a family history of breast cancer. Choice D is incorrect as the recommended age for starting yearly mammograms is 40, not 20.

3. A nurse is assisting with data collection regarding skin and peripheral vascular findings on a client in later adulthood. Which observation would the nurse expect to note as an age-related finding?

• A. Thin, ridged toenails
• B. Thick skin on the lower legs
• C. Loss of hair on the lower legs
• D. Bounding dorsalis pedis pulse

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In later adulthood, age-related findings include trophic changes associated with arterial insufficiency, such as thin, shiny skin; thin, ridged toenails; and loss of hair on the lower legs. These changes occur normally with aging. Thick skin on the lower legs would not be an expected age-related finding as it typically indicates chronic venous insufficiency. A bounding dorsalis pedis pulse is not typical in later adulthood and may indicate arterial insufficiency, which is not an age-related finding.

4. When a nurse-midwife, performing a vaginal examination of a client who suspects that she is pregnant, documents the presence of the Chadwick sign, what does this indicate?

• A. That the cervix appears violet
• B. That cervical softening is present
• C. A positive sign of pregnancy
• D. A thinning of the cervix

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct interpretation of the Chadwick sign is that the cervix appears violet in color. This sign is a probable sign of pregnancy, characterized by the violet coloration of the cervix due to increased vascularity of the pelvic organs. It is not a definitive positive sign of pregnancy but rather a probable one. Choices B and D are incorrect as cervical softening is known as the Goodell sign, and thinning of the cervix is referred to as the Hegar sign. These signs are also probable signs of pregnancy, but they do not specifically indicate the Chadwick sign.

5. A paraplegic client is in the hospital to be treated for an electrolyte imbalance. Which level of care is the client currently receiving?

• A. primary prevention
• B. secondary prevention
• C. tertiary prevention
• D. health promotion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. The client is currently receiving secondary prevention care. Secondary prevention focuses on early detection of disease, prompt intervention, and health maintenance for clients experiencing health problems. In this case, the electrolyte imbalance is a health problem that requires treatment to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because primary prevention is focused on health promotion and specific protections against illness before it occurs, tertiary prevention is aimed at helping rehabilitate clients after the illness is diagnosed and treated, and health promotion is a broader concept that includes activities aimed at improving overall health and well-being rather than targeting a specific health problem like an electrolyte imbalance.

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