Nursing Elites

1. During the change of shift, the oncoming nurse notes a discrepancy in the number of Percocet (Oxycodone) listed and the number present in the narcotic drawer. The nurse's first action should be to:

• A. Notify the hospital pharmacist
• B. Notify the nursing supervisor
• C. Notify the Board of Nursing
• D. Notify the director of nursing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The first action the nurse should take is to report the finding to the nursing supervisor and follow the chain of command. Notifying the nursing supervisor allows for immediate action within the facility to address the discrepancy. If it is found that the pharmacy is in error, then notifying the hospital pharmacist (Choice A) would be appropriate. Choices C and D, notifying the Board of Nursing and the director of nursing, are not the initial steps to take. These options may be necessary if theft is suspected or if the facility's internal response is inadequate. Therefore, they are incorrect answers.

2. Which of these should not be included when calculating a client's fluid intake?

• A. ice chips
• B. Jell-O™
• C. pudding
• D. IV fluid from an antibiotic piggyback

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pudding is a semi-solid and does not contribute significantly to fluid intake as it does not melt at room temperature. Therefore, it should not be included in fluid intake calculations. On the other hand, ice chips, Jell-O™, and IV fluid from an antibiotic piggyback are all sources of fluid that can significantly contribute to a client's total fluid intake and should be considered when calculating it. Ice chips and Jell-O™ provide hydration upon melting, while IV fluid directly adds to the fluid volume in the body.

3. An LPN on a Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI) team is tasked with implementing strategies to reduce medication errors. Which of the following strategies would be most beneficial for the LPN to implement?

• A. Track individuals who commit medication errors and report them to administration.
• B. Remind staff of the five rights of medication administration.
• C. Ensure that all staff members are proficient in completing incident reports if a medication error occurs.
• D. Double-check that staff document medication administration in the electronic medical record.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most beneficial strategy for the LPN on a CQI team to implement is to ensure that all staff members are proficient in completing incident reports if a medication error occurs. Organized and accurate incident reports are crucial in tracking and understanding why errors occurred. CQI teams utilize incident reports to develop new policies or enhance existing ones to standardize medical processes and reduce errors. Tracking individuals with medication errors (Choice A) may create a culture of blame rather than focusing on system improvements. Reminding staff of the five rights of medication administration (Choice B) is important for knowledge reinforcement but does not directly address the process improvement aspect. Double-checking documentation in the electronic medical record (Choice D) is necessary for accuracy but does not provide the detailed insights obtained from incident reports for process improvement.

4. What is the most common cause of injury from a house fire?

• A. Explosion
• B. Falls from second-story windows
• C. Thermal damage to skin and body surfaces
• D. Inhalation injury

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inhalation injury is the most common cause of injury from a house fire. When a fire occurs, the smoke produced contains harmful gases and particles that can be inhaled, leading to serious respiratory issues. This makes inhalation injury the primary concern during a house fire. Choices A, B, and C are less likely to be the primary cause of injury. While explosions may occur in some cases, inhalation of smoke and toxic fumes is generally the most prevalent danger. Falls from windows and thermal damage to the skin are also significant risks but typically occur after inhalation injuries in the sequence of events during a house fire.

5. A client has signed the informed consent for mastectomy of the left breast. On the morning of the surgical procedure, the client asks the nurse several questions about the procedure that make it obvious that she does not have an adequate comprehension of the procedure. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. Telling the client that she needed to ask these questions before signing the informed consent for surgery
• B. Contacting the surgeon and requesting that she visit the client to answer her questions
• C. Informing the client that she has the right to cancel the surgical procedure if she wishes
• D. Telling the client that it is her surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Informed consent is the authorization by a client or a client's legal representative to do something to the client. The surgeon is primarily responsible for explaining the surgical procedure and obtaining informed consent. If the client asks questions that alert the nurse to an inadequacy of comprehension on the client's part, the nurse has the obligation to contact the surgeon. Choice A is incorrect as the client should be allowed to ask questions even after signing the consent for surgery. Choice C is not the most appropriate response, as the primary concern is to address the client's lack of comprehension. Choice D is inaccurate, as while it is the surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure, in this scenario, the nurse should take immediate action to ensure the client's understanding. Requesting the surgeon to visit and answer the client's questions is the most appropriate response in this situation, as it directly addresses the client's concerns and ensures proper informed consent is obtained.

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