Nursing Elites

1. The LPN is checking for residual before administering enteral feeding through a PEG tube. Which of these steps is incorrect?

• A. The LPN elevates the head of the bed by at least 30 degrees.
• B. If the residual is greater than 200mL, the LPN should not administer the enteral feeding.
• C. The LPN should discard the residual before administering the tube feeding.
• D. The residual pH level is tested to ensure appropriate placement.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The incorrect step is choice C. The residual should be discarded before administering the tube feeding. Discarding the residual is essential to prevent contamination and ensure accurate measurement of the enteral feeding. Elevating the head of the bed by at least 30 degrees (choice A) is correct as it helps prevent aspiration during feeding. Testing the pH level of the residual (choice D) ensures proper placement of the tube. Withholding feeding if the residual is greater than 200mL (choice B) is crucial to prevent overfeeding, making this statement correct.

2. Which of the following statements describes the purpose of client restraint?

• A. Restraints are a nursing measure used to maintain client control.
• B. Restraints are an emergency intervention taken as a last resort to protect a client from imminent danger.
• C. Restraints are a therapeutic measure designed to positively reinforce client behavior.
• D. Restraints are an emergency measure that can only be taken by a nurse under the direct supervision of a physician.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Restraints are used as an emergency intervention when all other options to protect a client from imminent danger have been exhausted. Restraints should only be used as a last resort to ensure the safety of the client and others. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because restraints are not used to maintain control, reinforce behavior, or are exclusively taken under direct physician supervision. It is crucial to remember that restraint use should always be based on careful assessment, documentation, and adherence to legal and ethical guidelines.

3. Which of the following NSAIDs is most commonly used for a brief period for acute pain?

• A. Advil
• B. Aleve
• C. Toradol
• D. Bextra

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Toradol is the correct answer because it is an NSAID known for its effectiveness in managing acute pain for short durations. It can be administered via intramuscular (IM), intravenous (IV), or oral (PO) routes. Advil (choice A) and Aleve (choice B) are commonly used for mild to moderate pain but may not be as effective for acute pain requiring immediate relief. Bextra (choice D) was withdrawn from the market due to safety concerns, making it an inappropriate choice for acute pain management.

4. The nurse is teaching a client about communicable diseases and explains that a portal of entry is:

• A. a vector.
• B. a source, like contaminated water.
• C. food.
• D. the respiratory system.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'the respiratory system.' A portal of entry is the path through which a microorganism enters the body. In the case of communicable diseases, the respiratory system can serve as a portal of entry for pathogens such as viruses or bacteria. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A 'vector' is an organism that transmits disease, not the entry point for pathogens. Contaminated water or food can act as sources or reservoirs of disease-causing microorganisms, not portals of entry.

5. Which of the following medications should be held 24-48 hours prior to an electroencephalogram (EEG)?

• A. Lasix (furosemide)
• B. Cardizem (diltiazem)
• C. Lanoxin (digoxin)
• D. Dilantin (phenytoin)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anticonvulsants like Dilantin should be held 24-48 hours before an EEG to prevent interference with the test results. Medications such as tranquilizers, barbiturates, and other sedatives should also be avoided. Lasix, Cardizem, and Lanoxin do not belong to these categories and are not known to interfere with EEG results.

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