which of the following coping mechanisms protects an individual from anxiety
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex 2024 Questions

1. Which of the following coping mechanisms protects an individual from anxiety?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'denial and fantasy.' Denial involves blocking external events from awareness to avoid anxiety, while fantasy is escaping to a more comfortable, less threatening place. These mechanisms can protect individuals from anxiety by providing temporary relief or distraction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Rationalization and suppression do not directly protect individuals from anxiety. Regression and displacement involve reverting to earlier developmental stages or redirecting emotions to a substitute target, which do not directly shield individuals from anxiety. Reaction formation and projection entail behaving in the opposite way to one's impulses or attributing one's feelings to others respectively, which do not directly protect individuals from anxiety.

2. A client is admitted to the acute care unit. Initial laboratory values reveal serum sodium of 170meq/L. What behavior changes would be most common for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Mania.' A client with a serum sodium level of 170 meq/L has hypernatremia, which can lead to manic behavior. Hypernatremia is associated with irritability, restlessness, confusion, and in severe cases, manic symptoms. Choices A, C, and D (Anger, Depression, Psychosis) are not typically associated with hypernatremia and are, therefore, incorrect in this context.

3. Which of the following attitudes is essential in a nurse who assists clients during crises?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Viewing crisis intervention as the first step in solving bigger problems is essential in a nurse who assists clients during crises. This approach focuses on addressing the immediate crisis first, which can potentially prevent the escalation of bigger problems. Wanting to help clients solve all problems identified (Choice B) may not be feasible or necessary during a crisis situation where immediate intervention is crucial. Taking an active role in guiding the process (Choice C) is important, but the primary focus should be on crisis intervention. Feeling that work requires identification with all of a client's problems (Choice D) may lead to a lack of focus on the immediate crisis at hand.

4. The client is receiving heparin for thrombophlebitis of the left lower extremity. Which of the following drugs reverses the effects of heparin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, as it reverses its effects. Cyanocobalamin is a form of Vitamin B12 and is not used to reverse heparin effects. Streptokinase is a thrombolytic agent that is used to dissolve blood clots, not to reverse heparin effects. Sodium warfarin is an anticoagulant, but it is not the antidote for heparin. Therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reverse the effects of heparin.

5. The licensed practical nurse is observing a graduate nurse as she assesses the central venous pressure. Which observation would indicate that the graduate needs further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client should breathe normally during a central venous pressure monitor reading. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice A) is correct if the client can tolerate it. Turning the stop-cock off (Choice B) and noting the level at the top of the meniscus (Choice D) are also correct actions during CVP monitoring. Instructing the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver is incorrect as it can artificially alter the CVP reading, indicating a need for further teaching.

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