Nursing Elites

1. In performing a psychosocial assessment, the nurse begins by asking questions that encourage the client to describe problematic behaviors and situations. The next step is to elicit the client's

• A. feelings about what has been described.
• B. thoughts about what has been described.
• C. possible solutions to the problem.
• D. intent in sharing the description.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In performing a psychosocial assessment, the nurse follows a structured approach, starting with encouraging the client to describe problematic behaviors and situations. The next step is to elicit the client's thoughts about what has been described. This step helps gather more assessment data and understand how the client interprets the situation. Asking about feelings, exploring possible solutions, and understanding the client's intent in sharing the description are more complex processes that come later in the assessment. Therefore, the correct next step after describing behaviors and situations is to inquire about the client's thoughts.

2. Ashley and her boyfriend Chris, both 19 years old, are transported to the Emergency Department after being involved in a motorcycle accident. Chris is badly hurt, but Ashley has no apparent injuries, though she appears confused and has trouble focusing on what is going on around her. She complains of dizziness and nausea. Her pulse is rapid, and she is hyperventilating. The nurse should assess Ashley's level of anxiety as:

• A. mild.
• B. moderate.
• C. severe.
• D. panic.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Explanation: Ashley is displaying symptoms of severe anxiety, including confusion, trouble focusing, dizziness, nausea, rapid pulse, and hyperventilation. These somatic symptoms, along with changes in vital signs, indicate severe anxiety. In severe anxiety, individuals are unable to solve problems and have a poor grasp of their environment. On the other hand, mild anxiety may lead to mild discomfort or even enhanced performance, while moderate anxiety results in difficulty grasping information and minor changes in vital signs. Panic, the most severe level of anxiety, involves markedly disturbed behavior and a potential loss of touch with reality. Therefore, based on Ashley's symptoms, her anxiety level should be assessed as severe.

3. The client with cirrhosis of the liver is receiving Lactulose. The nurse is aware that the rationale for the order for Lactulose is:

• A. To lower the blood glucose level
• B. To lower the uric acid level
• C. To lower the ammonia level
• D. To lower the creatinine level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Lactulose is administered to the client with cirrhosis to lower ammonia levels, as it works by acidifying the colon, trapping ammonia for elimination in the stool. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Lactulose does not have an effect on blood glucose, uric acid, or creatinine levels. Therefore, the correct answer is to lower the ammonia level.

4. A client arrives in the emergency room with a possible fractured femur. The nurse should anticipate an order for:

• A. Trendelenburg position
• B. Ice to the entire extremity
• C. Buck's traction
• D. An abduction pillow

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Buck's traction. This intervention is used to realign the fractured femur, reduce spasms, and alleviate pain. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position is inappropriate for a femur fracture, making answer A incorrect. While ice may be used post-repair, applying it to the entire extremity is unnecessary, so answer B is wrong. An abduction pillow is typically employed following a total hip replacement, not for a fractured femur, rendering answer D incorrect.

5. The client is being assessed for possible pernicious anemia. Which finding would support this diagnosis?

• A. A weight loss of 10 pounds in 2 weeks
• B. Complaints of numbness and tingling in the extremities
• C. A red, beefy tongue
• D. A hemoglobin level of 12.0 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a red, beefy tongue, which is characteristic of pernicious anemia due to the atrophy of the papillae on the tongue. This finding is known as glossitis. A red, beefy tongue is a classic sign of pernicious anemia. Choice A, weight loss of 10 pounds in 2 weeks, is non-specific and not a typical finding in pernicious anemia. Choice B, complaints of numbness and tingling in the extremities, are more indicative of peripheral neuropathy, a common symptom of vitamin B12 deficiency, which can be seen in pernicious anemia. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 12.0 g/dL, falls within the normal range and does not specifically point towards pernicious anemia, which is characterized by low hemoglobin levels due to impaired absorption of vitamin B12.

Similar Questions