Nursing Elites

1. In performing a psychosocial assessment, the nurse begins by asking questions that encourage the client to describe problematic behaviors and situations. The next step is to elicit the client's

• A. feelings about what has been described.
• B. thoughts about what has been described.
• C. possible solutions to the problem.
• D. intent in sharing the description.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In performing a psychosocial assessment, the nurse follows a structured approach, starting with encouraging the client to describe problematic behaviors and situations. The next step is to elicit the client's thoughts about what has been described. This step helps gather more assessment data and understand how the client interprets the situation. Asking about feelings, exploring possible solutions, and understanding the client's intent in sharing the description are more complex processes that come later in the assessment. Therefore, the correct next step after describing behaviors and situations is to inquire about the client's thoughts.

2. While assessing a client who is dying for signs of impending death, what should the nurse observe for?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Cheyne-Stokes respiration
• C. Elevated pulse rate
• D. Decreased temperature

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client for signs of impending death, the nurse should observe for Cheyne-Stokes respiration. This pattern involves rhythmic waxing and waning of respirations from very deep breathing to very shallow breathing with periods of temporary apnea. It is often associated with cardiac failure and can be a significant indicator of impending death. Elevated blood pressure and pulse rate are not typical signs of impending death; in fact, they may indicate other conditions. A decreased temperature is also not a common sign of impending death, as temperature changes can vary among individuals and may not always correlate with the dying process.

3. Which of the following post-operative diets is most appropriate for the client who has had a hemorrhoidectomy?

• A. High-fiber
• B. Low-residue
• C. Bland
• D. Clear-liquid

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Clear-liquid.' After a hemorrhoidectomy, the client is usually started on a clear-liquid diet to allow the intestines to rest and promote healing. This diet helps prevent straining during bowel movements, which is crucial for recovery. Stool softeners are often included in the plan to avoid constipation. Once the client tolerates the clear liquids well, they can progress to a regular diet. High-fiber diet (choice A) is beneficial in the later stages of recovery to prevent constipation but is not typically the initial post-operative diet. Low-residue diet (choice B) and bland diet (choice C) are not appropriate for this type of surgery as they may not provide the necessary post-operative care and support needed for healing.

4. After group therapy, the female victim of intimate partner violence confides to the nurse that she does not feel in any immediate danger. Which of the following statements about victims of domestic violence is true?

• A. Victims of domestic violence are often the best predictors of their risk of harm.
• B. Victims of domestic violence often overestimate their safety risk.
• C. Victims of domestic violence are typically in a state of denial.
• D. Victims of domestic violence know that keeping peace with their partner is the best method of preventing another attack.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Victims of domestic violence are often correct at predicting their risk of harm. It is crucial for the nurse to ensure that the client is expressing herself authentically and not downplaying any potential danger. While victims can be insightful about their risk, it's essential to involve proper authorities, such as the police, in situations of intimate partner violence to ensure safety and provide necessary support. Choice B is incorrect because victims may not necessarily overestimate their safety risk. Choice C is incorrect as not all victims are in a state of denial; some may recognize the dangers they face. Choice D is incorrect because victims may not believe that keeping peace with their partner is the best way to prevent future attacks, as each individual's situation and mindset vary.

5. Client self-determination is the primary focus of:

• A. malpractice insurance
• B. nursing's advocacy for clients
• C. confidentiality
• D. health care

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Client self-determination refers to the right of clients to make their own decisions about their health care. Nursing's advocacy for clients focuses on upholding this right by supporting and respecting the autonomy and self-determination of clients. This advocacy ensures that clients are empowered to participate in decision-making regarding their health. Confidentiality, while essential, is about maintaining the privacy of client information. Malpractice insurance is a protective measure for professionals in case of errors or negligence. Health care, though crucial for enabling client self-determination, is a broad term encompassing various services and not the primary focus when discussing the client's right to autonomy.

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