Nursing Elites

1. An adult client tells the clinic nurse that he is susceptible to middle ear infections. About which risk factor related to infection of the ears does the nurse question this client?

• A. Loud music
• B. Use of power tools
• C. Occupational noise
• D. Exposure to cigarette smoke

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Exposure to cigarette smoke.' Otitis media (middle ear infection) is associated with various factors like colds, allergies, sore throats, and blockage of the eustachian tubes. Risk factors include exposure to cigarette smoke, youth (as otitis media is usually a childhood disease), congenital abnormalities, immune deficiencies, family history of otitis media, recent upper respiratory infections, and allergies. Choices A, B, and C (Loud music, Use of power tools, and Occupational noise) are more likely to cause hearing loss rather than being direct risk factors for middle ear infections.

2. A nurse assisting with data collection is preparing to assess the optic nerve. The nurse performs this examination by using which technique?

• A. Assessing visual acuity
• B. Inspecting the eyelids for ptosis
• C. Assessing pupil constriction
• D. Assessing ocular movements

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct technique to assess the optic nerve is by testing visual acuity and visual fields through confrontation. Visual acuity involves assessing the clarity of vision, which directly correlates with the function of the optic nerve. Inspecting the eyelids for ptosis is unrelated to optic nerve assessment. Assessing pupil constriction is more related to the assessment of cranial nerves controlling eye movements, particularly the oculomotor nerve. Assessing ocular movements is related to testing the abducens, oculomotor, and trochlear nerves, not specifically the optic nerve.

3. The nurse is teaching parents of a newborn about feeding their infant. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Use the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles.
• B. When refrigerating formula, discard partially used bottles after 24 hours.
• C. When using formula concentrate, mix one part water and one part concentrate.
• D. When using powdered formula, mix two parts water and one part powder.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to use the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles. It is essential for parents to be cautious when warming bottles in a microwave oven to prevent superheating of the milk. Choosing the defrost setting and checking the formula temperature before giving it to the baby helps avoid burns. Discarding partially used bottles after 24 hours when refrigerating formula is crucial as it reduces the risk of harmful bacterial growth. Mixing formula concentrate with water in a 1:1 ratio of one part concentrate to one part water ensures proper dilution of the formula. On the other hand, powdered formula should be mixed following the package instructions, typically using two parts water to one part powder. This accurate mixing ratio provides the necessary balance of nutrients for the baby. Adding fresh formula to partially used bottles can introduce pathogens that may harm the infant, underscoring the importance of discarding partially used bottles and preparing formula correctly. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the safe and proper ways to feed a newborn effectively.

4. During a well-baby examination, the nurse measures the head circumference, and it is the same as the chest circumference. On the basis of this measurement, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Document these measurements in the infant's health care record.
• B. Tell the mother that the infant is growing faster than expected.
• C. Suggest to the health care provider that a skull x-ray be performed.
• D. Report the presence of hydrocephalus to the health care provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The head circumference growth rate during the first year is approximately 0.4 inches (1 cm) per month. By 10 to 12 months of age, the infant's head and chest circumferences are equal. In this case, where the head circumference matches the chest circumference, it is a normal finding in infants around 10-12 months. Therefore, the most appropriate action is to document these measurements in the infant's health care record. Suspecting hydrocephalus or suggesting a skull x-ray would be premature and not indicated based on this measurement. Similarly, telling the mother that the infant is growing faster than expected is not accurate and could cause unnecessary concern.

5. A client, age 28, is 8 1/2 months pregnant. She is most likely to display which normal skin-color variation?

• A. vitiligo
• B. erythema
• C. cyanosis
• D. chloasma

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chloasma, also known as the mask of pregnancy, is described as tan-to-brown patches on the face. This hyperpigmentation results from hormonal changes during pregnancy. Vitiligo is characterized by depigmented patches, erythema is redness of the skin due to increased blood flow, and cyanosis is a bluish discoloration due to poor circulation or lack of oxygen, none of which are typical skin-color variations during pregnancy. Therefore, in a pregnant client, the most likely normal skin-color variation to be displayed is chloasma.

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