Nursing Elites

1. An adult client tells the clinic nurse that he is susceptible to middle ear infections. About which risk factor related to infection of the ears does the nurse question this client?

• A. Loud music
• B. Use of power tools
• C. Occupational noise
• D. Exposure to cigarette smoke

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Exposure to cigarette smoke.' Otitis media (middle ear infection) is associated with various factors like colds, allergies, sore throats, and blockage of the eustachian tubes. Risk factors include exposure to cigarette smoke, youth (as otitis media is usually a childhood disease), congenital abnormalities, immune deficiencies, family history of otitis media, recent upper respiratory infections, and allergies. Choices A, B, and C (Loud music, Use of power tools, and Occupational noise) are more likely to cause hearing loss rather than being direct risk factors for middle ear infections.

2. The mother of a newborn who was circumcised before discharge from the hospital calls the nurse at the pediatrician's office and tells the nurse that she is concerned because she has noticed a yellow crust over the circumcision site. The nurse provides which information to the mother?

• A. That it could indicate a sign of an infection and the infant's temperature should be checked every 2 hours
• B. That the crust is to be expected as a normal part of healing
• C. To bring the infant to the pediatrician's office to be checked
• D. To remove the crust, using a warm, wet face cloth and a mild soap

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After circumcision, a yellow crust may form over the circumcision site, which is a normal part of healing and should not be removed. The mother should be reassured that this crust is to be expected. Yellow crusting or discharge is not indicative of an infection, and there is no need to notify the pediatrician. Checking the infant's temperature every 2 hours is unnecessary and may cause unnecessary alarm to the mother.

3. A healthcare provider is preparing to perform a Rinne test on a client who complains of hearing loss. In which area does the healthcare provider first place an activated tuning fork?

• A. On the client's teeth
• B. On the client's forehead
• C. On the client's mastoid bone
• D. On the midline of the client's skull

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the Rinne test, the base of an activated tuning fork is held first against the mastoid bone, behind the ear, and then in front of the ear canal (0.5 to 2 inches). When the client no longer perceives the sound behind the ear, the fork is moved in front of the ear canal until the client indicates that the sound can no longer be heard. The client reports whether the sound from the tuning fork is louder behind the ear (on the mastoid bone) or in front of the ear canal. Placing the tuning fork on the teeth (Choice A), forehead (Choice B), or the midline of the skull (Choice D) is not part of the Rinne test procedure. Therefore, the correct answer is to first place the activated tuning fork on the client's mastoid bone.

4. The LPN is caring for a 9-month-old infant. Which of these behaviors exhibited by the child warrants further investigation?

• A. She prefers crawling over walking and makes no attempt to walk.
• B. She seems distressed by new adults.
• C. She does not respond to her own name.
• D. She only babbles "mama"? and "dada."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that the child does not respond to her own name. By 9 months, children should be babbling simple words, crawling, and responding to their name. Not responding to one's name can be an early indicator of a potential developmental delay, warranting further investigation. Preferring crawling over walking, being distressed by new adults, and babbling 'mama' and 'dada' are typical behaviors for a 9-month-old and do not necessarily require immediate concern.

5. Which of the following physical findings indicates that an 11-12-month-old child is at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

• A. refusal to walk
• B. not pulling to a standing position
• C. negative Trendelenburg sign
• D. negative Ortolani sign

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'not pulling to a standing position.' An 11-12-month-old child not pulling to a standing position may be at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip. By this age, children typically pull to a standing position, and failure to do so should raise concerns. Refusal to walk is a broader observation and not specific to hip dysplasia. The Trendelenburg sign indicates weakness of the gluteus medius muscle, not hip dysplasia. The Ortolani sign is used to detect congenital subluxation or dislocation of the hip, which is different from developmental dysplasia of the hip.

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