Nursing Elites

1. An adult client tells the clinic nurse that he is susceptible to middle ear infections. About which risk factor related to infection of the ears does the nurse question this client?

• A. Loud music
• B. Use of power tools
• C. Occupational noise
• D. Exposure to cigarette smoke

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Exposure to cigarette smoke.' Otitis media (middle ear infection) is associated with various factors like colds, allergies, sore throats, and blockage of the eustachian tubes. Risk factors include exposure to cigarette smoke, youth (as otitis media is usually a childhood disease), congenital abnormalities, immune deficiencies, family history of otitis media, recent upper respiratory infections, and allergies. Choices A, B, and C (Loud music, Use of power tools, and Occupational noise) are more likely to cause hearing loss rather than being direct risk factors for middle ear infections.

2. During a report from an ER nurse about a client, the nurse identifies a statement that requires additional follow-up. Which of the following statements needs further clarification?

• A. "The client said they have been taking aspirin, but I'm not sure for how long or how much."?
• B. "The client frequently takes antacids, but they have not taken any in the last three days."?
• C. "The client stopped taking ibuprofen after developing gastric ulcers."?
• D. "The client takes Antabuse and has stopped using mouthwash."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer requires further follow-up as the nurse needs to know the duration and dosage of aspirin since it can impact the patient's bleeding risk. Choice B does not require immediate follow-up as not taking antacids for three days is not critical. Choice C indicates a necessary decision made by the client to stop ibuprofen after developing gastric ulcers, hence no immediate follow-up is needed. Choice D provides important information, but the priority is to address the lack of specificity regarding the client's aspirin use, which is crucial for assessing bleeding risk and potential interactions.

3. During the examination of a client's throat, a nurse touches the posterior wall with a tongue blade and elicits the gag reflex. The nurse documents normal function of which cranial nerves?

• A. Cranial nerves V and VI
• B. Cranial nerves XII and VIII
• C. Cranial nerves XII and VIII
• D. Cranial nerves IX and X

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve). When the nurse touches the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and elicits the gag reflex, it indicates normal function of these nerves. Cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VI (abducens nerve) are not directly responsible for the gag reflex. Cranial nerves XII (hypoglossal nerve) and VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve) are not directly involved in eliciting the gag reflex. Testing cranial nerve I involves smell function, and cranial nerve II is related to eye examinations, making them irrelevant in this scenario.

4. You are caring for a 78-year-old woman who is wondering why she was diagnosed with glaucoma. Although she has several risk factors, which of these is not one of them?

• A. age
• B. blood pressure reading of 143/89
• C. Mexican-American heritage
• D. 20/80 vision

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Age over 60 and Mexican-American heritage are recognized as risk factors for glaucoma. Elevated blood pressure is also a risk factor due to its potential to cause optic nerve damage. While 20/80 vision indicates poor eyesight, it is not a direct causal factor for glaucoma. Glaucoma is mainly associated with factors like age, ethnicity, and certain medical conditions, rather than a specific visual acuity measurement. Therefore, 20/80 vision is not a risk factor for glaucoma, making it the correct answer. The other choices, such as age, Mexican-American heritage, and elevated blood pressure, are established risk factors for developing glaucoma, as they are associated with an increased likelihood of the condition.

5. During a well-baby examination, the nurse measures the head circumference, and it is the same as the chest circumference. On the basis of this measurement, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Document these measurements in the infant's health care record.
• B. Tell the mother that the infant is growing faster than expected.
• C. Suggest to the health care provider that a skull x-ray be performed.
• D. Report the presence of hydrocephalus to the health care provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The head circumference growth rate during the first year is approximately 0.4 inches (1 cm) per month. By 10 to 12 months of age, the infant's head and chest circumferences are equal. In this case, where the head circumference matches the chest circumference, it is a normal finding in infants around 10-12 months. Therefore, the most appropriate action is to document these measurements in the infant's health care record. Suspecting hydrocephalus or suggesting a skull x-ray would be premature and not indicated based on this measurement. Similarly, telling the mother that the infant is growing faster than expected is not accurate and could cause unnecessary concern.

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