NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. An adult client tells the clinic nurse that he is susceptible to middle ear infections. About which risk factor related to infection of the ears does the nurse question this client?
- A. Loud music
- B. Use of power tools
- C. Occupational noise
- D. Exposure to cigarette smoke
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Exposure to cigarette smoke.' Otitis media (middle ear infection) is associated with various factors like colds, allergies, sore throats, and blockage of the eustachian tubes. Risk factors include exposure to cigarette smoke, youth (as otitis media is usually a childhood disease), congenital abnormalities, immune deficiencies, family history of otitis media, recent upper respiratory infections, and allergies. Choices A, B, and C (Loud music, Use of power tools, and Occupational noise) are more likely to cause hearing loss rather than being direct risk factors for middle ear infections.
2. A nurse reviewing a client's record notes that the result of the client's latest Snellen chart vision test was 20/80. The nurse interprets the client's results in which way?
- A. The client is legally blind.
- B. The client has normal vision.
- C. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet.
- D. The client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When interpreting visual acuity testing results using the Snellen chart, the recorded numeric fraction represents the distance the client is standing from the chart and the distance a normal eye could read that particular line. A reading of 20/80 means that the client can read at 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet. This indicates visual impairment but does not meet the criteria for legal blindness, which is defined as best-corrected vision in the better eye of 20/200 or worse. Normal visual acuity is 20/20. Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet. Choice A is incorrect because 20/80 does not meet the criteria for legal blindness. Choice B is incorrect as the client's vision is impaired. Choice C is incorrect because it reverses the interpretation of the fraction.
3. A nurse in the healthcare provider's office is checking the Babinski reflex in a 3-month-old infant. The nurse determines that the infant's response is normal if which finding is noted?
- A. The fingers curl tightly, and the toes curl forward.
- B. The toes flare, and the big toe is dorsiflexed.
- C. There is extension of the extremities on the side to which the head is turned, with flexion on the opposite side.
- D. The infant turns to the side that is touched.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To elicit the Babinski reflex, the nurse strokes the lateral sole of the foot from the heel to across the base of the toes. In the expected response, the toes flare, and the big toe dorsiflexes. The Babinski reflex disappears at 12 months of age. Turning to the side that is touched is the expected response when the rooting reflex is elicited. Tight curling of the fingers and forward curling of the toes is the expected response when the grasp reflex (palmar and plantar) is elicited. Extension of the extremities on the side to which the head is turned with flexion on the opposite side is the expected response when the tonic neck reflex is elicited.
4. A client with massive chest and head injuries is admitted to the ICU from the Emergency Department. All of the following are true except:
- A. The physician in charge of the case is the sole person allowed to decide whether organ donation can occur.
- B. The client's legally responsible party may make the decision for organ donation for the donor if the client is unable to do so.
- C. The organ procurement organization makes the decision regarding which organs to harvest.
- D. The donor (or legally responsible party for the donor), the physician, and the organ-procurement organization are all involved in the process.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: While the physician plays a crucial role in the process of organ donation, they are not the sole decision-maker. The client's legally responsible party may make the decision for organ donation if the client is unable to do so. Additionally, the organ procurement organization is responsible for determining which organs are suitable for donation. Therefore, the statement that the physician in charge is the sole person allowed to decide whether organ donation can occur is incorrect. The correct answer is A. Choices B, C, and D are true statements as they highlight the involvement of the legally responsible party, the organ procurement organization, and the donor/legally responsible party, physician, and organ-procurement organization in the organ donation process respectively.
5. A nurse calculates a newborn infant's Apgar score 1 minute after birth and determines that the score is 6. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
- A. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
- B. Gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen
- C. Recheck the score in 5 minutes
- D. Provide no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The Apgar score is a method for rapidly evaluating an infant's cardiorespiratory adaptation after birth. The nurse assigns scores in five areas: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex response, and color, totaling the scores. A score of 8 to 10 requires no action other than supporting the infant's spontaneous efforts and observation. A score of 4 to 7 indicates the need to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. If the score is 1 to 3, the infant requires resuscitation. Therefore, in this scenario with an Apgar score of 6, the correct action is to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation would be excessive at this point, and rechecking the score in 5 minutes may delay necessary interventions. Providing no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts is insufficient for a score of 6, indicating the need for stimulation and oxygen administration.
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