NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. An adult client tells the clinic nurse that he is susceptible to middle ear infections. About which risk factor related to infection of the ears does the nurse question this client?
- A. Loud music
- B. Use of power tools
- C. Occupational noise
- D. Exposure to cigarette smoke
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Exposure to cigarette smoke.' Otitis media (middle ear infection) is associated with various factors like colds, allergies, sore throats, and blockage of the eustachian tubes. Risk factors include exposure to cigarette smoke, youth (as otitis media is usually a childhood disease), congenital abnormalities, immune deficiencies, family history of otitis media, recent upper respiratory infections, and allergies. Choices A, B, and C (Loud music, Use of power tools, and Occupational noise) are more likely to cause hearing loss rather than being direct risk factors for middle ear infections.
2. Which of the following solutions is routinely used to flush an IV device before and after the administration of blood to a client?
- A. 0.9% sodium chloride
- B. 5% dextrose in water solution
- C. Sterile water
- D. Heparin sodium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 0.9% sodium chloride. Normal saline is 0.9% sodium chloride, which has the same osmolarity as blood and does not cause cell lysis. Choices 2 and 3, 5% dextrose in water solution and sterile water, are hypotonic solutions that can lead to cell lysis. Choice 4, heparin sodium, is an anticoagulant and is not used for flushing IV devices before and after blood administration.
3. A nurse, assigned to care for a hospitalized child who is 8 years old, assists with planning care, taking into account Erik Erikson's theory of psychosocial development. According to Erikson's theory, which task represents the primary developmental task of this child?
- A. Developing a sense of control over self and body functions
- B. Mastering useful skills and tools
- C. Gaining independence from parents
- D. Developing a sense of trust in the world
Correct answer: B
Rationale: According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, the primary task for an 8-year-old child aligns with the stage of industry versus inferiority. This stage focuses on mastering useful skills and tools of the culture, emphasizing competence in various areas. Option A, 'Developing a sense of control over self and body functions,' is more characteristic of the toddler stage, emphasizing autonomy and self-regulation. Option C, 'Gaining independence from parents,' is more relevant to the adolescent stage, where identity development and autonomy become crucial. Option D, 'Developing a sense of trust in the world,' pertains to the infant stage, highlighting the importance of forming secure attachments. Therefore, the correct answer is B as it directly corresponds to the developmental tasks associated with an 8-year-old child according to Erikson's theory.
4. A nurse auscultating the fetal heart rate (FHR) of a pregnant client in the first trimester of pregnancy notes that the FHR is 160 beats/min. With this information, what should be the nurse's next action?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider of the finding.
- B. Document the findings.
- C. Tell the client that the FHR is faster than normal but that it is nothing to be concerned about at this time.
- D. Wait 15 minutes and then recheck the FHR.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An FHR of 160 beats/min in the first trimester of pregnancy is within the normal range, which is generally 120 to 160 beats/min. The appropriate action for the nurse in this situation is to document the findings. There is no need to notify the healthcare provider as this is a normal finding. Informing the client that the FHR is faster than normal may cause unnecessary anxiety, as it falls within the expected range. Waiting to recheck the FHR is not necessary since the rate is already within the normal range.
5. A client with dumping syndrome should..........................while a client with GERD should..........................
- A. Sit up 1 hour after meals; lie flat 30 minutes after meals
- B. Lie down 1 hour after eating; sit up at least 30 minutes after eating
- C. Sit up after meals; sit up after meals
- D. Lie down after meals; lie down after meals
Correct answer: D
Rationale: For a client with dumping syndrome, lying down 1 hour after eating helps reduce symptoms by slowing down the movement of food through the digestive tract, aiding in symptom management. This position assists in symptom management for dumping syndrome. Conversely, for a client with GERD, sitting up at least 30 minutes after eating can help prevent the backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus, reducing reflux symptoms. This upright position is beneficial for managing GERD. Choice A is incorrect because sitting up is recommended for GERD, not dumping syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests sitting up for both conditions, which is not appropriate. Choice D is incorrect as lying down after meals is not recommended for GERD; it can worsen symptoms by promoting acid reflux.
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