Nursing Elites

1. The LPN is caring for a client admitted for acute pancreatitis. Which of these medications would be the least appropriate for pain management?

• A. Tylenol
• B. Tramadol
• C. Codeine
• D. Morphine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Morphine is the least appropriate choice for pain management in pancreatitis due to its potential to cause spasms in the Sphincter of Oddi, which can worsen the client's condition by potentially obstructing the pancreatic duct. Tylenol, Tramadol, and Codeine are more suitable options for pain management in acute pancreatitis as they do not carry the same risk of exacerbating the condition by causing spasms in the Sphincter of Oddi.

2. While assisting with data collection, the nurse asks the client to close their jaws tightly. Subsequently, the nurse tries to open the closed jaws. In this technique, the nurse is assessing the motor function of which nerve?

• A. Trochlear nerve
• B. Abducens nerve
• C. Trigeminal nerve
• D. Oculomotor nerve

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Trigeminal nerve. To test the motor function of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V), the nurse assesses the muscles of mastication by asking the client to clench their teeth. By trying to separate the client's jaws, the nurse evaluates the strength of the temporal and masseter muscles innervated by the trigeminal nerve. This technique helps assess if the trigeminal nerve is functioning properly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they relate to other cranial nerves that are not involved in the specific motor function being tested in this scenario. These nerves are usually assessed through different examinations such as assessing the pupils and extraocular movements, which are not part of the jaw clenching and opening technique described in the question.

3. A nurse is assisting with data collection on an older client who will be seen by a physician in a health care clinic. When the nurse asks the client about sexual and reproductive function, the client reports concern about sexual dysfunction. What should be the nurse's next action?

• A. Document the client's concern in the medical record.
• B. Report the client's concern to the health care provider.
• C. Tell the client that sexual dysfunction is not a normal age-related change.
• D. Ask the client about medications he is taking.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sexual dysfunction is not a normal process of aging. The prevalence of chronic illness and medication use is higher among older adults than in the younger population. Illnesses and medications can interfere with the normal sexual function of older men and women. It is crucial to assess the medications the client is taking as they could be contributing to the reported sexual dysfunction. While documenting the concern and informing the healthcare provider are important steps, the immediate priority is to gather information on the medications that could be impacting the client's sexual function. Therefore, the nurse's next action should be to ask the client about the medications he is taking.

4. The physician orders the antibiotics ampicillin (Omnipen) and gentamicin (Garamycin) for a newly admitted client with an infection. The nurse should:

• A. administer both medications simultaneously
• B. give the medications sequentially, and flush well between them
• C. ask the physician or pharmacy which medication to give first and how long to wait before giving the other drug
• D. start one medication now and begin the other medication in 2-4 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to give the medications sequentially and flush well between them. Ampicillin has a pH of 8-10, while gentamicin has a pH of 3-5.5, making them incompatible when given together. Flushing well between drugs is necessary to prevent any potential interactions. Option A is incorrect because administering both medications simultaneously can lead to incompatibility issues. Option C is incorrect because the nurse should already be aware of the correct administration sequence and not need to consult the physician or pharmacy each time. Option D is incorrect because delaying the second medication by several hours can slow down the treatment of the client's infection, which is not ideal in this scenario.

5. Which of the following is not a nursing responsibility when preparing the client for central line insertion?

• A. advancing the guidewire
• B. explaining the procedure to the client
• C. maintaining sterile technique
• D. ensuring necessary consents are signed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing a client for central line insertion, nursing responsibilities include explaining the procedure to the client, ensuring necessary consents are signed according to the facility policy, and maintaining sterile technique when preparing the equipment and supplies. Advancing the guidewire is typically performed by the practitioner inserting the central line, not the nurse. It requires specialized training and expertise beyond the scope of nursing practice. Therefore, the correct answer is advancing the guidewire. Option A is the correct answer because it delineates an activity that is not within the usual scope of nursing practice during central line insertion preparation. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they reflect essential nursing responsibilities in this context.

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