NCLEX NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX Questions
1. A nurse assisting with data collection plans to assess tactile (vocal) fremitus. The nurse performs this by using which technique?
- A. Palpating for symmetric chest expansion
- B. Auscultating the breath sounds over the trachea and larynx
- C. Auscultating the breath sounds over the peripheral lung fields
- D. Palpating the thorax, comparing vibrations from side to side as the client repeats the word 'ninety-nine'
Correct answer: Palpating the thorax, comparing vibrations from side to side as the client repeats the word 'ninety-nine'
Rationale: To assess tactile (vocal) fremitus, the nurse palpates the thorax and compares vibrations from side to side as the client repeats the word 'ninety-nine.' This technique helps in evaluating the intensity and symmetry of vibrations felt. Palpating for symmetric chest expansion involves assessing the expansion of the chest during breathing by placing hands on the anterolateral wall. Auscultating the breath sounds over the trachea and larynx is done to assess bronchial breath sounds, while auscultating over the peripheral lung fields is used to assess vesicular breath sounds.
2. The nurse teaching a client about hepatitis and its transmission should explain that one type of hepatitis does not produce a carrier state after its acute phase. Which type is it?
- A. hepatitis A
- B. hepatitis B
- C. hepatitis C
- D. hepatitis D
Correct answer: hepatitis A
Rationale: The correct answer is hepatitis A. Hepatitis A does not produce a carrier state after its acute phase. It is transmitted via contaminated water or food through the oral-fecal route and is not blood-borne. Hepatitis B, choice B, can lead to a carrier state where the person remains infectious despite being asymptomatic. Hepatitis C, choice C, can also result in a chronic carrier state. Hepatitis D, choice D, is an incomplete virus that requires hepatitis B to replicate; it does not lead to a carrier state on its own.
3. The client is wheezing and struggling to breathe. Which of the inhaled medications is indicated at this time?
- A. Fluticasone (Flovent)
- B. Salmeterol (Serevent)
- C. Theophylline (Theodur)
- D. Albuterol (Atrovent)
Correct answer: Albuterol (Atrovent)
Rationale: The correct answer is Albuterol (Atrovent) because it is a rapid-acting bronchodilator, essential for a client experiencing wheezing and difficulty breathing. Albuterol acts quickly, dilating the airways and providing immediate relief in cases of respiratory distress. Fluticasone (Flovent) and Salmeterol (Serevent) are maintenance medications for long-term asthma control, not suitable for acute situations described. Theophylline (Theodur) is a bronchodilator but with a slower onset compared to Albuterol, making it less appropriate for a client in immediate distress.
4. The LPN notices a client with poor gait and balance. She is currently being treated for hypertension, but the nurse is concerned. What should the nurse do?
- A. Add this issue to the nursing care plan and include daily gait/balance training as an intervention.
- B. Do nothing as this is unrelated to the client's hospitalization.
- C. Speak with the attending physician about the concerns and request a referral for the client to go to physical therapy.
- D. Speak with the attending physician about the concerns and request a referral to physical therapy.
Correct answer: Speak with the attending physician about the concerns and request a referral to physical therapy.
Rationale: Nurses should address any concerns regarding a client's health, even if they are not directly related to the reason for hospitalization. In this case, the nurse noticing the client's poor gait and balance should communicate these concerns to the attending physician. The correct course of action is to request a referral to physical therapy, as this specialized intervention can help address the client's issues effectively. Adding gait/balance training to the care plan without professional assessment and intervention may not be appropriate. Doing nothing is not in line with providing comprehensive care, and referring the client to the hospital gym is not as effective as a referral to physical therapy for addressing gait and balance issues.
5. A nurse is reviewing the findings of a physical examination documented in a client’s record. Which piece of information does the nurse recognize as objective data?
- A. The client is allergic to strawberries
- B. The last menstrual period was 30 days ago
- C. The client takes acetaminophen (Tylenol) for headaches
- D. A 1 × 2-inch scar is present on the lower right portion of the abdomen
Correct answer: A 1 × 2-inch scar is present on the lower right portion of the abdomen
Rationale: Objective data in a physical examination are findings that the healthcare provider observes or measures directly. In this case, a 1 × 2-inch scar present on the lower right portion of the abdomen is a physical observation. Subjective data are based on what the client reports, such as allergies (Choice A), the date of the last menstrual period (Choice B), and self-reported medication use for headaches (Choice C). While these pieces of information are important for assessing the client's health, they are considered subjective data because they rely on the client’s self-report rather than direct observation by the healthcare provider.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX Basic
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
NCLEX Basic
- 5,000 Questions and answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX Coverage
- 90 days access @ $69.99