Nursing Elites

1. While taking care of a client, the nurse thinks that physical therapy in the hospital might be beneficial to their condition. The following is the ideal referral process EXCEPT?

• A. Transport the client to the physical therapy room for treatment after receiving an official referral.
• B. Provide the physical therapist with the client's medical record after the referral.
• C. Contact the client's primary care provider to suggest a physical therapy referral.
• D. Request the client to self-refer to the physical therapist.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ideal referral process for a client to receive physical therapy in the hospital starts with the nurse contacting the client's primary care provider to discuss and suggest a physical therapy referral. The primary care provider should provide an official referral, which is crucial for initiating the treatment process. After obtaining the official referral, the nurse should provide the physical therapist with the client's medical record. This step is essential for the therapist to assess the client's condition and customize the treatment plan accordingly. Once the physical therapist is informed and prepared, the nurse can then transport the client to the physical therapy room for treatment. Therefore, the correct sequence is to first contact the primary care provider (Choice C), then provide the medical record (Choice B), and finally transport the client for treatment (Choice A). Choice D, suggesting the client self-refer to the physical therapist, is incorrect as the referral process should involve healthcare professionals to ensure proper assessment and treatment planning.

2. A nursing care plan for a client with sleep problems has been implemented. All of the following should be expected outcomes except:

• A. the client reports no episodes of awakening during the night.
• B. the client falls asleep within 1 hour of going to bed.
• C. the client reports satisfaction with their amount of sleep.
• D. the client rates sleep as an 8 or more on the visual analog scale.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An expected outcome for a nursing care plan targeting sleep problems is that the client reports no episodes of awakening during the night, the client reports satisfaction with their amount of sleep, and the client rates sleep as an 8 or more on the visual analog scale. Falling asleep within 1 hour of going to bed is not necessarily an expected outcome. While it is generally desirable for individuals to fall asleep within a reasonable time frame, this specific timeframe may vary among individuals, and it is not a strict criterion for successful sleep outcomes. Therefore, the correct answer is that the client falls asleep within 1 hour of going to bed, as this is not a definitive measure of the effectiveness of the nursing care plan for sleep problems.

3. Acyclovir (Zovirax) is the agent of choice for which of the following infections?

• A. HIV
• B. AIDS
• C. candida
• D. herpes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication specifically effective in treating herpes infections. It works by inhibiting the replication of the herpes virus, shortening the duration of the infection. While Acyclovir can be used in HIV and AIDS patients to treat opportunistic viral infections, it is not a primary drug for managing HIV or AIDS itself. Candida is a type of fungus, and infections caused by Candida are treated with antifungal medications, not antivirals like Acyclovir. Therefore, the correct answer is herpes.

4. What is the 24-hour day-night cycle known as?

• A. circadian rhythm
• B. infradian rhythm
• C. ultradian rhythm
• D. non-REM rhythm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is circadian rhythm. Circadian rhythm refers to the rhythmic repetition of patterns that occur approximately every 24 hours, regulating various biological processes related to the day-night cycle. Infradian rhythm, which is longer than 24 hours, and ultradian rhythm, which is shorter than 24 hours, are not the correct terms for the 24-hour cycle. Non-REM rhythm does not specifically relate to the 24-hour day-night cycle, making it an incorrect choice.

5. An 80-year-old aphasic CVA client had abdominal surgery 2 days ago. Which of the following puts this client at the highest risk for inadequate pain management?

• A. Inability to turn, cough, and breathe deeply
• B. Inability to communicate pain
• C. Inability to ambulate freely
• D. Inability to use a bedside commode

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inability to communicate pain. In this scenario, the client's aphasia prevents them from verbally expressing their pain, which can lead to inadequate pain management if the healthcare team is not vigilant. The nurse must use alternative methods to assess and address the client's pain. Choices A, C, and D, although important considerations in postoperative care, do not directly relate to the client's ability to communicate pain, which is crucial for effective pain management in this case.

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