Nursing Elites

1. How can medication bound to protein affect drug availability?

• A. enhanced drug availability
• B. rapid distribution of the drug to receptor sites
• C. less availability to produce desired medicinal effects
• D. increased metabolism of the drug by the liver

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Medication bound to protein reduces the availability of the drug to produce desired medicinal effects because only unbound drugs can effectively bind to active receptor sites. When a drug is bound to protein, it cannot bind with receptor sites, limiting its therapeutic impact. Choice A is incorrect because drug availability is reduced when it is bound to protein. Choice B is incorrect as rapid distribution to receptor sites is not possible if the drug is bound to protein and cannot bind with receptors. Choice D is incorrect as metabolism does not increase when the drug is bound to protein; the liver first needs to separate the drug from the protein before metabolism can occur.

2. The nurse is assessing the client recently returned from surgery. The nurse is aware that the best way to assess pain is to:

• A. Take the blood pressure, pulse, and temperature
• B. Ask the client to rate his pain on a scale of 0-5
• C. Watch the client's facial expression
• D. Ask the client if he is in pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best way to evaluate pain levels is to ask the client to rate his pain on a scale. This method provides a more standardized and quantifiable measure of pain compared to subjective observations like facial expressions (choice C) or direct questioning (choice D). Monitoring vital signs (choice A) can be part of pain assessment but is not as specific or reliable as asking the client to self-report pain intensity.

3. A client goes to the mental health center for difficulty concentrating, insomnia, and nightmares. The client reports being raped as a child. The nurse should assess the client for further signs of:

• A. generalized anxiety disorder.
• B. schizophrenia.
• C. post-traumatic stress disorder.
• D. bipolar disorder.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Given the history of childhood sexual abuse and the presenting symptoms of difficulty concentrating, insomnia, and nightmares, the nurse should assess the client for post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Childhood sexual abuse is strongly associated with adult-onset depression and an increased risk for PTSD. Individuals with PTSD may exhibit re-experiencing symptoms such as flashbacks, nightmares, and heightened reactions to trauma triggers. They may also display emotional numbing, avoidance behaviors, and increased arousal symptoms like difficulty sleeping and hypervigilance. Generalized anxiety disorder (Choice A) is characterized by excessive worry and anxiety about various events or activities, not necessarily tied to a specific trauma. Schizophrenia (Choice B) is a severe mental disorder characterized by distortions in thinking, perception, emotions, and behavior, unrelated to the traumatic event described. Bipolar disorder (Choice D) involves mood swings between depressive and manic episodes, and its symptoms differ from those typically seen in PTSD.

4. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.

5. A 57-year-old woman is recently widowed. She states, "I will never be able to learn how to manage the finances. My husband did all of that."? Select the nurse's response that could help raise the client's self-esteem.

• A. "You feel inadequate because you have never learned to balance a checkbook."?
• B. "You should have insisted your husband teach you about the finances."?
• C. "You are strong and will learn how to manage your finances after a while."?
• D. "I believe in your strength to learn how to manage your finances in time."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should aim to boost the client's self-esteem by providing positive reinforcement. By stating, "You are strong and will learn how to manage your finances after a while,"? the nurse acknowledges the client's strength and capability, encouraging her to believe in herself. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on the client's inadequacy rather than empowering her. Choice B places unnecessary blame on the client for not taking action in the past. Choice D, though positive, slightly alters the nurse's original phrase, making choice C the most appropriate response to uplift the client's self-esteem.

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