Nursing Elites

1. How can medication bound to protein affect drug availability?

• A. enhanced drug availability
• B. rapid distribution of the drug to receptor sites
• C. less availability to produce desired medicinal effects
• D. increased metabolism of the drug by the liver

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Medication bound to protein reduces the availability of the drug to produce desired medicinal effects because only unbound drugs can effectively bind to active receptor sites. When a drug is bound to protein, it cannot bind with receptor sites, limiting its therapeutic impact. Choice A is incorrect because drug availability is reduced when it is bound to protein. Choice B is incorrect as rapid distribution to receptor sites is not possible if the drug is bound to protein and cannot bind with receptors. Choice D is incorrect as metabolism does not increase when the drug is bound to protein; the liver first needs to separate the drug from the protein before metabolism can occur.

2. Which of the following solutions is routinely used to flush an IV device before and after the administration of blood to a client?

• A. 0.9% sodium chloride
• B. 5% dextrose in water solution
• C. Sterile water
• D. Heparin sodium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 0.9% sodium chloride. Normal saline is 0.9% sodium chloride, which has the same osmolarity as blood and does not cause cell lysis. Choices 2 and 3, 5% dextrose in water solution and sterile water, are hypotonic solutions that can lead to cell lysis. Choice 4, Heparin sodium, is an anticoagulant and is not routinely used to flush an IV device before and after the administration of blood.

3. While the client is receiving quinidine, the nurse should monitor the ECG for:

• A. Peaked P wave
• B. Elevated ST segment
• C. Inverted T wave
• D. Prolonged QT interval

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quinidine can cause widened Q-T intervals and heart block, leading to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG. Other signs of myocardial toxicity associated with quinidine include notched P waves and widened QRS complexes. Common side effects of quinidine include diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting, while less common effects may include tinnitus, vertigo, headache, visual disturbances, and confusion. Monitoring for a prolonged QT interval is crucial due to the potential risk of serious arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are not typically associated with the use of quinidine and are therefore incorrect in this context.

4. After group therapy, the female victim of intimate partner violence confides to the nurse that she does not feel in any immediate danger. Which of the following statements about victims of domestic violence is true?

• A. Victims of domestic violence are often the best predictors of their risk of harm.
• B. Victims of domestic violence often overestimate their safety risk.
• C. Victims of domestic violence are typically in a state of denial.
• D. Victims of domestic violence know that keeping peace with their partner is the best method of preventing another attack.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Victims of domestic violence are often correct at predicting their risk of harm. It is crucial for the nurse to ensure that the client is expressing herself authentically and not downplaying any potential danger. While victims can be insightful about their risk, it's essential to involve proper authorities, such as the police, in situations of intimate partner violence to ensure safety and provide necessary support. Choice B is incorrect because victims may not necessarily overestimate their safety risk. Choice C is incorrect as not all victims are in a state of denial; some may recognize the dangers they face. Choice D is incorrect because victims may not believe that keeping peace with their partner is the best way to prevent future attacks, as each individual's situation and mindset vary.

5. In the United States, several definitions of death are currently being used. The definition that uses apnea testing and pupillary responses to light is termed:

• A. whole brain death.
• B. heart-lung death.
• C. circulatory death.
• D. higher brain death.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'whole brain death.' Most protocols for determining whole brain death require two separate clinical examinations, including the induction of painful stimuli, pupillary responses to light, oculovestibular testing, and apnea testing. This comprehensive approach ensures that all functions of the brain, including the brainstem, are evaluated to confirm the absence of brain function. Choices B and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the specific tests required for determining whole brain death. Choice C, 'circulatory death,' does not involve the evaluation of brain function and is not a current definition of death in the United States.

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