Nursing Elites

1. After reviewing the child's immunization record, which scheduled vaccine should the nurse prepare to administer next?

• A. Hib
• B. IPV
• C. MMR
• D. DTaP

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is DTaP. DTaP is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age; between 15 and 18 months of age; and between 4 and 6 years of age. Since the child has only received three doses of this vaccine, the next dose of DTaP should be administered. The other options are incorrect because Hib is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age and between 12 and 15 months; IPV is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age and between 4 and 6 years of age; MMR is administered between 12 and 15 months of age and again between 4 and 6 years of age.

2. In the context of diagnostic genetic counseling, which of the following choices is typically not made by clients?

• A. Terminating the pregnancy.
• B. Preparing for the birth of a child with special needs.
• C. Accessing support services before the birth.
• D. Completing the grieving process before the birth.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In diagnostic genetic counseling, clients may face difficult decisions based on test results. Terminating the pregnancy is a choice some clients may consider if severe abnormalities are detected. Preparing for the birth of a child with special needs involves getting ready to care for a child who may require extra attention and support. Accessing support services before the birth can help clients connect with resources and professionals for assistance during and after the pregnancy. Completing the grieving process before birth is not typically a choice made in the context of genetic counseling. The grieving process often starts or continues after distressing results and can extend beyond the birth of the child. Therefore, the correct answer is completing the grieving process before the birth.

3. A 65-year-old female client is experiencing postmenopausal bleeding. Which type of physician should this client be encouraged to see?

• A. a radiologist
• B. a gynecologist
• C. a physiatrist
• D. an oncologist

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A 65-year-old female experiencing postmenopausal bleeding should be encouraged to see a gynecologist. Gynecologists specialize in treating and managing diseases of the female reproductive organs, making them the most appropriate physician for this issue. Postmenopausal bleeding can indicate various gynecological conditions such as endometrial atrophy, endometrial hyperplasia, or endometrial cancer, highlighting the importance of consulting a gynecologist for proper diagnosis and management. Radiologists evaluate X-rays, physiatrists manage rehabilitation teams, and oncologists treat clients with cancer. Therefore, in this case, the symptoms point towards a gynecological problem, emphasizing the necessity of seeking care from a gynecologist.

4. A Mexican American client with epilepsy is being seen at the clinic for an initial examination. The nurse understands which primary purpose of including cultural information in the health assessment?

• A. Confirm the medical diagnosis.
• B. Make accurate nursing diagnoses.
• C. Identify any hereditary traits related to the epilepsy.
• D. Determine what the client believes has caused the epilepsy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary purpose for including cultural information in the health assessment is to determine what the client believes has caused the illness. In Mexican American culture, epilepsy is seen as a reflection of physical imbalance. While gathering data on hereditary traits and formulating nursing diagnoses are important, they are not the primary reasons for including cultural information in the health assessment. It is crucial to understand the client's beliefs as they may impact their perceptions of health, treatment adherence, and overall care. It is not the nurse's role to confirm a medical diagnosis, as this is the responsibility of the healthcare provider.

5. The client has an order for an IV piggyback of Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W to run over 30 minutes. What is the appropriate drip rate?

• A. 100 mL/hr
• B. 150 mL/hr
• C. 200 mL/hr
• D. 50 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, you need to convert the time from minutes to hours. The formula is (Volume to be infused / Time for infusion in minutes) x (60 minutes / 1 hour). Substituting the values, (50 mL / 30 min) x (60 min / 1 hr) = 100 mL/hr. Therefore, the appropriate drip rate is 100 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drip rate. Option A, 100 mL/hr, is the correct drip rate for administering Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W over 30 minutes.

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