Nursing Elites

1. After reviewing the child's immunization record, which scheduled vaccine should the nurse prepare to administer next?

• A. Hib
• B. IPV
• C. MMR
• D. DTaP

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is DTaP. DTaP is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age; between 15 and 18 months of age; and between 4 and 6 years of age. Since the child has only received three doses of this vaccine, the next dose of DTaP should be administered. The other options are incorrect because Hib is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age and between 12 and 15 months; IPV is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age and between 4 and 6 years of age; MMR is administered between 12 and 15 months of age and again between 4 and 6 years of age.

2. During an interview, what action should a nurse conducting an interview with a client take to collect subjective data?

• A. Takes minimal notes to avoid impeding observation of the client's nonverbal behaviors
• B. Takes a great deal of notes to allow the client to continue at his or her own pace as the nurse records what he or she is saying
• C. Takes notes because this allows the nurse to break eye contact with the client, which may increase the client's level of comfort
• D. Takes notes to allow the nurse to shift attention away from the client, which may make the nurse more comfortable

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During an interview, a nurse should minimize note-taking to focus on the client and not impede the conversation. Taking minimal notes allows the nurse to effectively observe the client's nonverbal behaviors, which provide valuable subjective data. Option B, taking many notes, is incorrect as it can distract the nurse from the client's cues and hinder interaction. Option C, taking notes to break eye contact, is incorrect as it may decrease the client's comfort level and disrupt communication. Option D, taking notes to shift attention away from the client, is incorrect as it diminishes the client's importance and may make them uncomfortable during sensitive discussions. Therefore, the correct approach is for the nurse to take minimal notes, ensuring effective observation of the client's nonverbal behaviors while collecting subjective data.

3. A healthcare professional is using an otoscope to inspect the ears of an adult client. Which action does the professional take before inserting the otoscope?

• A. Pulling the pinna up and back
• B. Pulling the pinna down and forward
• C. Tipping the client's head down and toward the examiner
• D. Tipping the client's head down and away from the examiner

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In an adult client, the healthcare professional should pull the pinna up and back before inserting the otoscope. This action helps straighten the S shape of the ear canal, making it easier to insert the otoscope directly and comfortably. Tipping the client's head down and toward or away from the examiner is not the correct action when using an otoscope in an adult. Pulling the pinna down and forward is typically done when examining an infant or a child younger than 3 years old to straighten their ear canal for better visualization.

4. Which of the following actions should the LPN perform for a client with an active digoxin IV order? Select all that apply.

• A. plug the patient to the ECG Monitor
• B. Administer the medication over at least 5 minutes.
• C. Monitor respirations during administration.
• D. Monitor the client's pulse for 1 minute prior to administration.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct actions for the LPN to perform for a client with an active digoxin IV order are to monitor ECG rhythm throughout administration and monitor the client's pulse for 1 minute prior to administration. These actions are crucial as digoxin affects the heart's electrical activity, and it should not be administered if the client's pulse is less than 60 bpm. Monitoring respirations and blood pressure are not directly associated with digoxin administration. Administering IV medications is typically outside the LPN's scope of practice.

5. When assessing a client with deep pitting edema, with the indentation remaining for a short time and visible leg swelling, how should a nurse document this finding?

• A. 1+ edema
• B. 2+ edema
• C. 3+ edema
• D. 4+ edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 3+ edema. When assessing for edema, the nurse presses thumbs against the ankle malleolus or the tibia. If the skin retains an indentation, it indicates pitting edema. The grading scale for pitting edema includes: 1+ for mild pitting with slight indentation and no perceptible leg swelling, 2+ for moderate pitting where the indentation subsides rapidly, 3+ for deep pitting with an indentation remaining briefly and visible leg swelling, and 4+ for very deep pitting with a long-lasting indentation and significant leg swelling. Choices A, B, and D do not accurately represent the severity of the edema described in the scenario.

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