NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX Questions
1. After reviewing the child's immunization record, which scheduled vaccine should the nurse prepare to administer next?
- A. Hib
- B. IPV
- C. MMR
- D. DTaP
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is DTaP. DTaP is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age; between 15 and 18 months of age; and between 4 and 6 years of age. Since the child has only received three doses of this vaccine, the next dose of DTaP should be administered. The other options are incorrect because Hib is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age and between 12 and 15 months; IPV is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age and between 4 and 6 years of age; MMR is administered between 12 and 15 months of age and again between 4 and 6 years of age.
2. Why is Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness significant?
- A. it focuses on the health beliefs of a particular family.
- B. it highlights the impact of culture on health explanations.
- C. it discusses the significant role of popular and folk domains of influence.
- D. it is based on an educational approach.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness is significant because it emphasizes the influence of popular and folk domains on health perceptions. Kleinman distinguishes between disease, representing the biomedical view, and illness, reflecting individual understanding. The model underscores that cultural factors shape the significance of popular and folk influences on health beliefs. Choice A is incorrect as the model focuses on broader cultural influences, not individual family beliefs. Choice B is incorrect as it oversimplifies the model's emphasis on various cultural aspects. Choice D is incorrect as the model's significance lies in its cultural framework rather than an educational base.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health care record of a client who has just undergone an examination of the internal genitalia. Which documented finding indicates an abnormality?
- A. The cervix is pink.
- B. The cervix is midline.
- C. The cervix is about 1 inch in diameter.
- D. Clear secretions with a foul odor are noted on the cervix.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Clear secretions with a foul odor are noted on the cervix.' Normally, the cervix is pink, midline, and about 1 inch in diameter. Depending on the day of the menstrual cycle, secretions may vary. However, they should always be odorless and nonirritating. Secretions with a foul odor are indicative of an infection, making this finding abnormal. Choices A, B, and C describe normal cervix characteristics, so they do not indicate an abnormality in this scenario.
4. A nurse assisting with data collection notes that the client exhibits rapid, involuntary oscillating movements of the eyeball when looking at the nurse. The nurse documents this finding using which term?
- A. Ptosis
- B. Nystagmus
- C. Scleral icterus
- D. Exophthalmos
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a nurse observes rapid, involuntary oscillating movements of the eyeball in a client, this is described as nystagmus. Nystagmus appears as a fine oscillating movement, most notable around the iris. It is important to assess for nystagmus when evaluating ocular muscle weakness. Mild nystagmus at extreme lateral gaze is considered normal; nystagmus in any other position is not. Ptosis refers to a drooping of the eyelid, not rapid eye movements. Scleral icterus is the yellowing of the sclera up to the cornea, indicating jaundice, not related to eye movements. Exophthalmos is a noticeable protrusion of the eyeball, typically seen in hyperthyroidism, not associated with rapid oscillating eye movements.
5. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:
- A. naloxone (Narcan)
- B. labetalol (Normodyne)
- C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
- D. thiothixene (Navane)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to opiate overdose. Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist that can rapidly reverse the effects of opiates by competitively binding to opioid receptors and displacing the opiates. This action can restore normal respiration and consciousness. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a non-selective beta-blocker used to manage hypertension, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid overdose. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to manage psychotic disorders, not opioid toxicity.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access