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1. Which of the following methods of contraception is able to reduce the transmission of HIV and other STDs?
- A. intrauterine device (IUD)
- B. Norplant
- C. oral contraceptives
- D. vaginal sponge
Correct answer: vaginal sponge
Rationale: The correct answer is the vaginal sponge. The vaginal sponge, when used with foam or jelly contraception, acts as a barrier method that can reduce the transmission of HIV and other STDs, in addition to preventing pregnancy. In contrast, IUDs, Norplant, and oral contraceptives are effective in preventing pregnancy but do not provide protection against the transmission of HIV and STDs. IUDs prevent pregnancy by affecting sperm movement and survival, Norplant releases hormones to prevent ovulation, and oral contraceptives work by inhibiting ovulation. However, these methods do not create a physical barrier against HIV and STD transmission. It is important to counsel clients using methods like IUDs, Norplant, and oral contraceptives to also use chemical or barrier contraceptives to lower the risk of HIV or STD transmission.
2. A client had a Caesarean delivery and is postpartum day 1. She asks for pain medication when the nurse enters the room to do her shift assessment. The client states that her pain level is an 8 on a scale of 1 to 10. What should be the nurse’s priority of care?
- A. Give the pain medication and return in an hour for further assessment to allow time for the medication to work.
- B. Complete the postpartum assessment and then give the client pain medication.
- C. Give the pain medication first, do a quick assessment while administering the medication to ensure the pain is not caused by a complication, and return for the full assessment after the client’s pain has subsided.
- D. Instruct the patient to do relaxation exercises to relieve her discomfort.
Correct answer: Give the pain medication first, do a quick assessment while administering the medication to ensure the pain is not caused by a complication, and return for the full assessment after the client’s pain has subsided.
Rationale: Pain management is a priority, so the nurse should immediately provide pain medication. However, the nurse should conduct a quick assessment while administering the medication to ensure that a complication, such as hemorrhage, hasn’t caused the increased pain. A complete assessment can wait until the pain subsides. Controlling pain will enable the client to move, eliminating other potential complications of delivery and facilitating bonding with the infant. Relaxation techniques can act as an adjunct therapy but by themselves are not usually effective for pain management during the early post-Caesarean period.
3. Several passengers aboard an airliner suddenly become weak and suffer breathing difficulty. The diagnosis is likely to be
- A. Outbreak of Asian flu.
- B. Chemical exposure.
- C. Bacterial pneumonia.
- D. Allergic reaction.
Correct answer: Chemical exposure.
Rationale: In the scenario described, where multiple passengers on an airliner experience sudden weakness and breathing difficulty simultaneously, the most likely cause is chemical exposure. This is because a sudden onset of similar symptoms in a group of individuals suggests a common environmental factor affecting them. Options A, C, and D are less likely as they do not explain a sudden onset of symptoms in multiple individuals simultaneously. Asian flu (Option A) is a viral infection and would not typically result in sudden symptoms in multiple individuals at the same time. Bacterial pneumonia (Option C) is a localized infection and not a probable cause for a sudden onset of symptoms in a group. An allergic reaction (Option D) would usually occur in individuals with specific allergies rather than affecting a group of passengers at the same time.
4. A nurse in a long-term care center notes that an employee is constantly calling in sick. Which action should the nurse take initially to handle this problem?
- A. Documenting the employee's absences in the personnel file
- B. Discussing the situation with the employee and reminding them of the agency's employment standards
- C. Reporting the employee to administration
- D. Issuing a written warning to the employee
Correct answer: B: Discussing the situation with the employee and reminding them of the agency's employment standards
Rationale: When an employee demonstrates excessive absenteeism, the initial action a nurse should take is to discuss the situation with the employee and remind them of the agency's employment standards. It is important to communicate openly with the employee to understand the reasons for their frequent absences and remind them of the expectations regarding attendance. This approach allows for a constructive dialogue and provides the employee with an opportunity to rectify their behavior. Documenting the employee's absences in the personnel file may be necessary if the issue persists despite the discussion. Reporting the employee to administration should be considered only if the employee fails to improve after the initial discussion. Issuing a written warning should be a subsequent step if the employee continues to violate the attendance policies even after reminders and discussions.
5. A nurse assisting with data collection for a client with kidney failure notes that the client has the appearance of generalized edema over the entire body. The nurse documents this finding using which terminology?
- A. Anasarca
- B. Ecchymosis
- C. Unilateral edema
- D. Increased vascularity of the skin tissue
Correct answer: Anasarca
Rationale: The correct term for generalized edema over the entire body is 'Anasarca.' Anasarca is indicative of a systemic issue such as congestive heart failure or kidney failure. It does not refer to increased vascularity of the skin tissue. Ecchymosis is a bruise caused by capillary bleeding into the tissues, unrelated to generalized edema. Unilateral edema is swelling in a specific area of the body, not the generalized edema observed in anasarca.
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