NCLEX-PN
Best NCLEX Next Gen Prep
1. Which of the following methods of contraception is able to reduce the transmission of HIV and other STDs?
- A. intrauterine device (IUD)
- B. Norplant
- C. oral contraceptives
- D. vaginal sponge
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is the vaginal sponge. The vaginal sponge, when used with foam or jelly contraception, acts as a barrier method that can reduce the transmission of HIV and other STDs, in addition to preventing pregnancy. In contrast, IUDs, Norplant, and oral contraceptives are effective in preventing pregnancy but do not provide protection against the transmission of HIV and STDs. IUDs prevent pregnancy by affecting sperm movement and survival, Norplant releases hormones to prevent ovulation, and oral contraceptives work by inhibiting ovulation. However, these methods do not create a physical barrier against HIV and STD transmission. It is important to counsel clients using methods like IUDs, Norplant, and oral contraceptives to also use chemical or barrier contraceptives to lower the risk of HIV or STD transmission.
2. The nurse has a client who is being transferred to another floor right around change of shift. Which of the following actions is least appropriate?
- A. Inform the staff on the other floor of any unresolved issues with the client.
- B. Ask the charge nurse if overtime would be permitted to complete the client's transfer to the other floor.
- C. Ask the new nurse to take care of the transfer since the client's medical record has all of the information, and a report should not be needed.
- D. Complete the transfer paperwork before the client is transferred.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The least appropriate action in this scenario is to ask the new nurse to take care of the transfer without providing a full handoff of care. It is crucial to ensure a safe handoff during the transfer to maintain continuity of care and patient safety. Informing the staff on the other floor of any unresolved issues with the client (Choice A) is important for the client's well-being as it helps in providing comprehensive care. Asking the charge nurse about overtime (Choice B) demonstrates consideration for completing the task effectively, but it should not take precedence over ensuring a proper handoff. Completing the transfer paperwork before the client is transferred (Choice D) is necessary to ensure all documentation is in order, but it should be done in conjunction with providing a thorough handoff of care to the new nurse.
3. A nurse calculates a newborn infant's Apgar score 1 minute after birth and determines that the score is 6. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
- A. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
- B. Gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen
- C. Recheck the score in 5 minutes
- D. Provide no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The Apgar score is a method for rapidly evaluating an infant's cardiorespiratory adaptation after birth. The nurse assigns scores in five areas: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex response, and color, totaling the scores. A score of 8 to 10 requires no action other than supporting the infant's spontaneous efforts and observation. A score of 4 to 7 indicates the need to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. If the score is 1 to 3, the infant requires resuscitation. Therefore, in this scenario with an Apgar score of 6, the correct action is to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation would be excessive at this point, and rechecking the score in 5 minutes may delay necessary interventions. Providing no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts is insufficient for a score of 6, indicating the need for stimulation and oxygen administration.
4. The client has an order for an IV piggyback of Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W to run over 30 minutes. What is the appropriate drip rate?
- A. 100 mL/hr
- B. 150 mL/hr
- C. 200 mL/hr
- D. 50 mL/hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, you need to convert the time from minutes to hours. The formula is (Volume to be infused / Time for infusion in minutes) x (60 minutes / 1 hour). Substituting the values, (50 mL / 30 min) x (60 min / 1 hr) = 100 mL/hr. Therefore, the appropriate drip rate is 100 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drip rate. Option A, 100 mL/hr, is the correct drip rate for administering Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W over 30 minutes.
5. A nurse is assisting with developing a plan of care for an older client to help maintain an adequate sleep pattern. Which action should the nurse suggest be included in the plan?
- A. Encouraging bedtime reading or listening to music
- B. Encouraging at least one daytime nap
- C. Discouraging the use of a nightlight at bedtime
- D. Discouraging social interaction, particularly at bedtime
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To help maintain an adequate sleep pattern in older clients, it is essential to include activities that promote relaxation and a conducive sleep environment. Encouraging bedtime reading or listening to music can help the client unwind and prepare for sleep. Daytime naps should be discouraged to ensure a better nighttime sleep. Social interaction, especially positive interactions, can be beneficial and should not be discouraged. The use of a nightlight can create a safe and comfortable environment for the client, so it should not be discouraged unless specifically contraindicated.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access