Nursing Elites

1. If a visitor accidentally knocks over a plastic pleural drainage system connected to a client, causing it to crack, what should the nurse do first?

• A. Observe the client's response.
• B. Notify the physician.
• C. Change the drainage system.
• D. Observe for leaks.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a pleural drainage system is cracked, the nurse's initial action should be to change the drainage system. This is essential to prevent potential complications like air leaks or infections. While observing the client's response and checking for leaks are important steps, they are secondary to addressing the immediate issue of the cracked system. Notifying the physician, though necessary, can be carried out once the primary concern of the damaged system is resolved.

2. When administering NSAID adjunctive therapy to an elderly client with cancer, the nurse must monitor:

• A. BUN and creatinine.
• B. creatinine and calcium.
• C. Hgb and Hct.
• D. BUN and CFT.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When an elderly client with cancer is receiving NSAID therapy, monitoring BUN (blood urea nitrogen) and creatinine levels is crucial. NSAIDs can cause renal toxicity, especially in the elderly. BUN and creatinine levels help assess renal function and detect early signs of renal impairment. Monitoring creatinine alone (Choice B) is not sufficient as BUN provides complementary information about renal function. Monitoring hemoglobin (Hgb) and hematocrit (Hct) (Choice C) is important for assessing anemia but not specific to NSAID therapy in the elderly. CFT (Choice D) is not a standard abbreviation in this context, and monitoring coagulation function is not directly related to NSAID therapy in this scenario.

3. Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:

• A. Primary prevention.
• B. Secondary prevention.
• C. Tertiary prevention.
• D. Disability prevention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Hearing screening for prematurely born infants falls under secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a condition in its early stages to prevent further complications. Primary prevention (choice A) focuses on preventing the disease from occurring, while tertiary prevention (choice C) involves managing complications and preventing disability. Choice D, disability prevention, is not a recognized category of prevention. In this context, the screening helps in early identification of hearing loss, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further impairment or complications, aligning with the principles of secondary prevention.

4. The nurse is teaching a client about communicable diseases and explains that a portal of entry is:

• A. a vector.
• B. a source, like contaminated water.
• C. food.
• D. the respiratory system.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'the respiratory system.' A portal of entry is the path through which a microorganism enters the body. In the case of communicable diseases, the respiratory system can serve as a portal of entry for pathogens such as viruses or bacteria. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A 'vector' is an organism that transmits disease, not the entry point for pathogens. Contaminated water or food can act as sources or reservoirs of disease-causing microorganisms, not portals of entry.

5. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?

• A. renal failure
• B. psoriasis
• C. lupus
• D. cirrhosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cirrhosis is the correct answer. In cirrhosis, the liver is unable to detoxify ammonia to urea, leading to an accumulation of ammonia in the blood. This can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by high ammonia levels affecting brain function. Renal failure (Choice A), psoriasis (Choice B), and lupus (Choice C) are not directly associated with an increased risk of high ammonia levels as seen in cirrhosis.

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