Nursing Elites

1. After undergoing gastric resection, the client is informed by the nurse that which of the following meals is most likely to cause rapid emptying of the stomach?

• A. a high-protein meal
• B. a high-fat meal
• C. a large meal regardless of nutrient content
• D. a high-carbohydrate meal

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After gastric resection, meals high in carbohydrates are more likely to cause rapid emptying of the stomach. Carbohydrates stimulate the release of gastrin, which accelerates gastric emptying. On the other hand, high-fat and high-protein meals tend to delay gastric emptying. A large meal, regardless of nutrient content, can also delay gastric emptying due to the increased volume of food that needs to be processed.

2. The LPN is assisting the client with an NG tube with activities of daily living. Which of these statements would indicate a need for teaching reinforcement?

• A. "Since I'm not eating or drinking by mouth, I do not need to brush my teeth as often."?
• B. "I should remain sitting up at a 45-degree angle or higher for 30 minutes after a feeding."?
• C. "I can clean around the tube with water and mild soap."?
• D. "I should avoid using Vaseline around the nostril and tube."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, "Since I'm not eating or drinking by mouth, I do not need to brush my teeth as often."? This statement indicates a need for teaching reinforcement because even when an NG tube is in place, the client should still brush their teeth twice daily. Good oral hygiene is essential to reduce the risk of introducing bacteria that may cause an infection. Choice B is incorrect because remaining sitting up at a 45-degree angle or higher for 30 minutes after a feeding is a correct statement regarding NG tube care, promoting proper digestion and reducing the risk of aspiration. Choice C is also incorrect because cleaning around the tube with water and mild soap is an appropriate practice to maintain cleanliness and prevent infection. Choice D is incorrect because advising to avoid using Vaseline around the nostril and tube is a proper instruction to prevent skin breakdown, occlusion of the tube, and potential aspiration of Vaseline into the lungs.

3. Which of these statements from the caregiver of a palliative care client indicates a proper understanding?

• A. This treatment plan usually indicates a prognosis of less than 6 months.
• B. We will need to stay in the hospital to receive this level of care.
• C. The main therapeutic goals are comfort and better quality of life.
• D. The medications to treat the underlying disease will be continued.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The main therapeutic goals are comfort and better quality of life.' This statement reflects a proper understanding of palliative care, which focuses on improving the patient's quality of life and providing comfort. It does not necessarily mean a prognosis of less than 6 months or require hospitalization. Choice A is incorrect because palliative care can be provided regardless of the prognosis. Choice B is wrong as palliative care can be administered in various settings, not just hospitals. Choice D is inaccurate as palliative care aims to improve symptoms and quality of life, so medications may be adjusted but not necessarily stopped.

4. Following a recent tattoo, someone should be screened for:

• A. tuberculosis.
• B. herpes.
• C. hepatitis.
• D. syphilis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Following a recent tattoo, someone should be screened for hepatitis. Tattooing puts a client at risk for blood-borne hepatitis B or C if strict sterile procedures are not followed. Tuberculosis is an airborne pathogen, while herpes and syphilis are spread through direct contact like sexual activity. Therefore, hepatitis is the most relevant infection to screen for after getting a tattoo.

5. A client is diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following antiviral drug classes are used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?

• A. nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• B. protease inhibitors
• C. HIV fusion inhibitors
• D. all of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All of the provided choices are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, such as tenofovir and emtricitabine, work by interfering with the virus's ability to replicate. Protease inhibitors, like atazanavir and darunavir, block an enzyme that HIV needs to make copies of itself. HIV fusion inhibitors, for instance, enfuvirtide, prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, 'all of the above' is the correct answer as all the listed drug classes are commonly used in managing HIV infections. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of antiretroviral therapy for HIV, targeting different stages of the virus's life cycle. The combination of drugs from these classes is often recommended to effectively control HIV replication and reduce viral load.

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