Nursing Elites

1. A two-year-old has been in the hospital for 3 weeks and has seldom seen family members due to isolation precautions. Which of the following hospitalization changes is most likely to be occurring?

• A. Guilt
• B. Trust
• C. Separation anxiety
• D. Shame

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Separation anxiety.' Separation anxiety is a common response in young children when they are separated from their primary caregivers for extended periods. In this case, the two-year-old being in the hospital for three weeks and not being able to see family members due to isolation precautions can trigger separation anxiety. 'Guilt' is a feeling of responsibility for wrongdoing, which is not the most likely change occurring in this scenario. 'Trust' involves reliance and confidence in others, not typically associated with prolonged separation from family. 'Shame' is a negative emotion related to feeling disgrace, which is not the most appropriate response in this hospitalization situation.

2. An elderly client denies that abuse is occurring. Which of the following factors could be a barrier for the client to admit being a victim?

• A. knowledge that elder abuse is rare
• B. personal belief that abuse is deserved
• C. lack of developmentally appropriate screening tools
• D. fear of reprisal or further violence if the incident is reported

Correct answer: D

Rationale: One of the significant barriers for elderly clients to admit being victims of abuse is the fear of reprisal or further violence if the incident is reported. Elderly individuals may be afraid of the consequences of reporting abuse, such as retaliation or increased violence from the abuser. This fear can prevent them from disclosing their victimization. Choices A and C are incorrect as knowledge of the rarity of elder abuse and the availability of appropriate screening tools do not directly impact the client's willingness to admit abuse. Choice B, personal belief that abuse is deserved, may be a factor for some individuals but is not as common or impactful as the fear of reprisal or further violence.

3. A 25-year-old male is brought to the emergency room with a piece of metal in his eye. Which action by the nurse is correct?

• A. Use a magnet to remove the object.
• B. Rinse the eye thoroughly with saline.
• C. Cover both eyes with paper cups.
• D. Administer eye drops immediately.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Covering both eyes with paper cups is the correct action as it helps prevent consensual movement of the affected eye. Attempting to remove the object with a magnet might cause trauma, making choice A incorrect. While rinsing the eye with saline may be necessary, it should be ordered by a doctor and is not the initial action for the nurse, making choice B incorrect. Administering eye drops immediately, as in choice D, is not appropriate in this scenario and does not address the primary concern of preventing further damage by limiting eye movement.

4. The nurse is participating in discharge teaching for the postpartal client. The nurse is aware that an effective means of managing discomfort associated with an episiotomy after discharge is:

• A. Promethazine
• B. Aspirin
• C. Sitz baths
• D. Ice packs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A sitz bath is an effective method for managing discomfort associated with an episiotomy after discharge. It helps reduce swelling and promotes healing in the perineal area. Ice packs (option D) are typically used immediately after delivery to provide pain relief. Promethazine (option A) and aspirin (option B) are not indicated for managing discomfort associated with an episiotomy. Promethazine is an antihistamine, and aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, both of which are not commonly used for this purpose.

5. Six hours after birth, the infant is found to have an area of swelling over the right parietal area that does not cross the suture line. The nurse should chart this finding as:

• A. A cephalohematoma
• B. Molding
• C. Subdural hematoma
• D. Caput succedaneum

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, a cephalohematoma. A cephalohematoma is an area of bleeding outside the cranium but beneath the periosteum, typically not crossing the suture line. Answer B, molding, is the overlapping of the bones of the cranium and does not involve bleeding, making it an incorrect choice. Answer C, a subdural hematoma, involves intracranial bleeding and is typically diagnosed through imaging studies like a CAT scan or x-ray. Answer D, caput succedaneum, is characterized by edema that crosses the suture line, unlike the described swelling in this case.

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