appropriate nursing strategies to assist a client in maintaining a sense of self include
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

PN Nclex Questions 2024

1. What are appropriate nursing strategies to assist a client in maintaining a sense of self?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining a sense of self is crucial for clients in healthcare settings. Treating the client with dignity is a fundamental nursing principle that helps preserve the client's self-worth and identity. Addressing the client by their first name when interacting with them is a way to show respect, but it alone may not significantly contribute to maintaining their sense of self. Explaining procedures to the client, regardless of their attentiveness, is essential for informed consent and autonomy, empowering them in their care. Encouraging the use of personal items can foster a sense of identity as these items often hold personal significance and emotional value for the client, thus supporting their sense of self; therefore, discouraging their use would be counterproductive in maintaining a client's sense of self.

2. The client is taking rifampin 600mg po daily to treat his tuberculosis. Which action by the nurse indicates understanding of the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is telling the client that the medication will change the color of the urine. Rifampin can change the color of the urine and body fluid. Teaching the client about these changes is important as the client might think this is a complication. Answer A is incorrect because there is no specific requirement to take rifampin with juice. Answer C is incorrect because rifampin should be taken at consistent times, not necessarily before going to bed. Answer D is incorrect as rifampin should be taken regularly as prescribed, not based on symptoms like night sweats.

3. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression after being given an opiate drug, the physician is likely to order the administration of naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opiate antagonist that attaches to opiate receptors, blocking or reversing the action of narcotic analgesics. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Labetalol is a beta blocker used for hypertension, neostigmine is an anticholinesterase agent used to treat myasthenia gravis and reverse neuromuscular blockade, and thiothixene is an antipsychotic agent used for psychiatric conditions.

4. Ashley and her boyfriend Chris, both 19 years old, are transported to the Emergency Department after being involved in a motorcycle accident. Chris is badly hurt, but Ashley has no apparent injuries, though she appears confused and has trouble focusing on what is going on around her. She complains of dizziness and nausea. Her pulse is rapid, and she is hyperventilating. The nurse should assess Ashley's level of anxiety as:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Based on the symptoms described, Ashley's level of anxiety should be assessed as severe. In severe anxiety, individuals have difficulty solving problems and understanding their environment. They often exhibit somatic symptoms like dizziness, nausea, rapid pulse, and hyperventilation. In contrast, mild anxiety may lead to mild discomfort or even enhanced performance. Moderate anxiety involves grasping less information, mild difficulty in problem-solving, and slight changes in vital signs. Panic, on the other hand, is characterized by markedly disturbed behavior and a potential loss of touch with reality. Therefore, in Ashley's case, the presence of somatic symptoms and vital sign changes indicates severe anxiety.

5. The home health nurse is planning for the day's visits. Which client should be seen first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority client is the 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter. This client is at the highest risk for complications and requires immediate attention. Choice C, the 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line, is incorrect as Vancomycin administration can be scheduled at specific times and does not indicate an urgent need for a visit. Choices A and B are also incorrect as these clients are more stable compared to the client with multiple sclerosis in need of cortisone therapy.

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