Nursing Elites

1. While assessing a client who is dying for signs of impending death, what should the nurse observe for?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Cheyne-Stokes respiration
• C. Elevated pulse rate
• D. Decreased temperature

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client for signs of impending death, the nurse should observe for Cheyne-Stokes respiration. This pattern involves rhythmic waxing and waning of respirations from very deep breathing to very shallow breathing with periods of temporary apnea. It is often associated with cardiac failure and can be a significant indicator of impending death. Elevated blood pressure and pulse rate are not typical signs of impending death; in fact, they may indicate other conditions. A decreased temperature is also not a common sign of impending death, as temperature changes can vary among individuals and may not always correlate with the dying process.

2. The client with cirrhosis of the liver is receiving Lactulose. The nurse is aware that the rationale for the order for Lactulose is:

• A. To lower the blood glucose level
• B. To lower the uric acid level
• C. To lower the ammonia level
• D. To lower the creatinine level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Lactulose is administered to the client with cirrhosis to lower ammonia levels, as it works by acidifying the colon, trapping ammonia for elimination in the stool. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Lactulose does not have an effect on blood glucose, uric acid, or creatinine levels. Therefore, the correct answer is to lower the ammonia level.

3. Why might the physician order antibiotics to be given through the central venous access device (CVAD) rather than through a peripheral IV line if the CVAD becomes infected?

• A. To prevent infiltration of the peripheral line
• B. To reduce the pain and discomfort associated with antibiotic administration in a small vein
• C. To lessen the chance of an allergic reaction to the antibiotic
• D. To attempt to eliminate microorganisms in the catheter and prevent having to remove it

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient's central venous access device (CVAD) becomes infected, administering antibiotics through the line is essential to attempt to eliminate microorganisms within the catheter. The goal is to prevent the necessity of removing the catheter, which might be required if the infection persists. Choice A, 'To prevent infiltration of the peripheral line,' is incorrect as the priority is addressing the catheter infection, not preventing issues with a peripheral line. Choice B, 'To reduce the pain and discomfort associated with antibiotic administration in a small vein,' is not relevant to the rationale for choosing the CVAD for antibiotic administration. Choice C, 'To lessen the chance of an allergic reaction to the antibiotic,' is also incorrect as the main focus is managing the catheter-associated infection rather than allergy prevention.

4. When a woman is having her first child, she is experiencing which type of crisis event?

• A. situational
• B. maturational
• C. adventitious
• D. reactive

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A maturational crisis occurs when an individual reaches a new stage of development, such as becoming a parent for the first time, and needs to develop new coping strategies to adapt to this change. Situational crises (Choice A) arise from external sources, not developmental milestones. Adventitious crises (Choice C) are caused by external events like natural disasters and are not related to personal development stages. Reactive crises (Choice D) are responses to specific stressors and are not associated with developmental milestones like becoming a parent for the first time.

5. The nurse is making assignments for the day. Which client should be assigned to the pregnant nurse?

• A. The client receiving linear accelerator radiation therapy for lung cancer
• B. The client with a radium implant for cervical cancer
• C. The client who has just been administered soluble brachytherapy for thyroid cancer
• D. The client who returned from placement of iridium seeds for prostate cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pregnant nurse should not be assigned to any client with radioactivity present. The client receiving linear accelerator therapy is the correct choice because the radiation stays in the department, and the client is not radioactive. Choices B, C, and D involve clients who are radioactive or pose a risk due to radioactivity. The client with a radium implant for cervical cancer (choice B) is radioactive, the client who has just been administered soluble brachytherapy for thyroid cancer (choice C) is radioactive for approximately 72 hours, and the client who returned from placement of iridium seeds for prostate cancer (choice D) is also radioactive, especially right after the procedure. These options are not suitable for assignment to the pregnant nurse.

Similar Questions