NCLEX-PN
PN Nclex Questions 2024
1. A contraindication for topical corticosteroid use in a client with atopic dermatitis (eczema) is:
- A. parasitic infection
- B. fungal infection
- C. spirochetal infection
- D. viral infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Topical corticosteroids are mainly used for their localized effects. When treating atopic dermatitis with a steroidal preparation, there is a risk of the site being vulnerable to invasion by organisms. Viruses like herpes simplex or varicella zoster pose a threat of disseminated infection. Therefore, viral infection is a contraindication for topical corticosteroid use in clients with atopic dermatitis. It is crucial to educate clients using topical corticosteroids to avoid crowds or people with infections and to promptly report any signs of infection. Choices A, B, and C (parasitic, fungal, and spirochetal infections) are not typically contraindications for topical corticosteroid use in the context of atopic dermatitis, as these agents do not pose the same risk of disseminated infection or systemic effects as viral infections.
2. The client is being assessed for possible pernicious anemia. Which finding would support this diagnosis?
- A. A weight loss of 10 pounds in 2 weeks
- B. Complaints of numbness and tingling in the extremities
- C. A red, beefy tongue
- D. A hemoglobin level of 12.0 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is a red, beefy tongue, which is characteristic of pernicious anemia due to the atrophy of the papillae on the tongue. This finding is known as glossitis. A red, beefy tongue is a classic sign of pernicious anemia. Choice A, weight loss of 10 pounds in 2 weeks, is non-specific and not a typical finding in pernicious anemia. Choice B, complaints of numbness and tingling in the extremities, are more indicative of peripheral neuropathy, a common symptom of vitamin B12 deficiency, which can be seen in pernicious anemia. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 12.0 g/dL, falls within the normal range and does not specifically point towards pernicious anemia, which is characterized by low hemoglobin levels due to impaired absorption of vitamin B12.
3. The nurse is participating in discharge teaching for the postpartal client. The nurse is aware that an effective means of managing discomfort associated with an episiotomy after discharge is:
- A. Promethazine
- B. Aspirin
- C. Sitz baths
- D. Ice packs
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A sitz bath is an effective method for managing discomfort associated with an episiotomy after discharge. It helps reduce swelling and promotes healing in the perineal area. Ice packs (option D) are typically used immediately after delivery to provide pain relief. Promethazine (option A) and aspirin (option B) are not indicated for managing discomfort associated with an episiotomy. Promethazine is an antihistamine, and aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, both of which are not commonly used for this purpose.
4. The nurse wishes to decrease a client's use of denial and increase the client's expression of feelings. To do this, the nurse should:
- A. tell the client to stop using the defense mechanism of denial.
- B. positively reinforce each expression of feelings.
- C. instruct the client to express feelings.
- D. challenge the client each time denial is used.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario provided, the nurse aims to reduce the client's use of denial and encourage the expression of feelings. Positive reinforcement for each expression of feelings is an effective approach to achieve this goal. By positively reinforcing the client's expression of feelings, the nurse encourages the desired behavior, making it more likely for the client to continue sharing their emotions. This approach creates a supportive and accepting environment for the client. In contrast, telling the client to stop using denial (Choice A) may create resistance and inhibit communication by putting pressure on the client. Instructing the client to express feelings (Choice C) is less effective as it lacks the element of reinforcement that is essential for behavior modification. Challenging the client each time denial is used (Choice D) may lead to defensiveness and hinder the therapeutic relationship, making it a less favorable option.
5. A home health nurse is making preparations for morning visits. Which one of the following clients should the nurse visit first?
- A. A client with brain attack (stroke) receiving tube feedings
- B. A client with congestive heart failure complaining of nighttime dyspnea
- C. A client who had a thoracotomy 6 months ago
- D. A client with Parkinson’s disease
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client with congestive heart failure complaining of nighttime dyspnea should be seen first as airway management is a priority in nursing care. This client's symptoms indicate potential respiratory distress, requiring immediate attention. Choices A, C, and D involve clients who are more stable and do not present with urgent or acute conditions that require immediate intervention. Choice A with a client receiving tube feedings for a stroke may require attention, but the urgency of addressing potential respiratory distress in choice B takes precedence. Choice C, a client who had a thoracotomy 6 months ago, unless presenting with acute distress, does not necessitate immediate attention. Choice D, a client with Parkinson's disease, is usually a chronic condition that does not typically require immediate intervention for the described scenario.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access