Nursing Elites

1. A contraindication for topical corticosteroid use in a client with atopic dermatitis (eczema) is:

• A. parasitic infection
• B. fungal infection
• C. spirochetal infection
• D. viral infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Topical corticosteroids are mainly used for their localized effects. When treating atopic dermatitis with a steroidal preparation, there is a risk of the site being vulnerable to invasion by organisms. Viruses like herpes simplex or varicella zoster pose a threat of disseminated infection. Therefore, viral infection is a contraindication for topical corticosteroid use in clients with atopic dermatitis. It is crucial to educate clients using topical corticosteroids to avoid crowds or people with infections and to promptly report any signs of infection. Choices A, B, and C (parasitic, fungal, and spirochetal infections) are not typically contraindications for topical corticosteroid use in the context of atopic dermatitis, as these agents do not pose the same risk of disseminated infection or systemic effects as viral infections.

2. The physician orders the antibiotics ampicillin (Omnipen) and gentamicin (Garamycin) for a newly admitted client with an infection. The nurse should:

• A. administer both medications simultaneously.
• B. give the medications sequentially, and flush well between them.
• C. ask the physician or pharmacy which medication to give first and how long to wait before giving the other drug.
• D. start one medication now and begin the other medication in 2-4 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with an infection needs both antibiotics as soon as possible. However, the pH of ampicillin is 8-10, and the pH of gentamicin is 3-5.5, making them incompatible when given together. Flushing well between drugs is necessary to prevent interaction. Choice C is incorrect because the nurse, not the physician or pharmacy, should determine the correct administration sequence. Consulting with the pharmacist is appropriate if uncertain. Choice D is incorrect because delaying the second medication by several hours can slow the treatment of the client's infection, as both antibiotics are needed promptly to address the infection effectively. Therefore, the correct action is to give the medications sequentially and flush well between them to prevent any potential interactions.

3. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan).
• B. labetalol (Normodyne).
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin).
• D. thiothixene (Navane).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression after being given an opiate drug, the physician is likely to order the administration of naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opiate antagonist that attaches to opiate receptors, blocking or reversing the action of narcotic analgesics. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Labetalol is a beta blocker used for hypertension, neostigmine is an anticholinesterase agent used to treat myasthenia gravis and reverse neuromuscular blockade, and thiothixene is an antipsychotic agent used for psychiatric conditions.

4. The client is visiting a home health client with osteoporosis. The client has a new prescription for alendronate (Fosamax). Which instruction should be given to the client?

• A. Rest in bed after taking the medication for at least 30 minutes
• B. Avoid rapid movements after taking the medication
• C. Take the medication with water only
• D. Allow at least 1 hour between taking the medicine and taking other medications

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax), instructing them to avoid rapid movements after taking the medication is crucial to prevent esophageal irritation. Resting in bed after taking the medication for at least 30 minutes (choice A) is not necessary and can increase the risk of side effects. While taking the medication with water only (choice C) is generally recommended, the key instruction to prevent esophageal irritation is to avoid rapid movements. Allowing at least 1 hour between taking the medicine and other medications (choice D) is not specifically related to the administration of alendronate and is not the primary concern when giving instructions to the client.

5. A 57-year-old woman is recently widowed. She states, "I will never be able to learn how to manage the finances. My husband did all of that."? Select the nurse's response that could help raise the client's self-esteem.

• A. "You feel inadequate because you have never learned to balance a checkbook."?
• B. "You should have insisted your husband teach you about the finances."?
• C. "You are strong and will learn how to manage your finances after a while."?
• D. "I believe in your strength to learn how to manage your finances in time."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should aim to boost the client's self-esteem by providing positive reinforcement. By stating, "You are strong and will learn how to manage your finances after a while,"? the nurse acknowledges the client's strength and capability, encouraging her to believe in herself. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on the client's inadequacy rather than empowering her. Choice B places unnecessary blame on the client for not taking action in the past. Choice D, though positive, slightly alters the nurse's original phrase, making choice C the most appropriate response to uplift the client's self-esteem.

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