a patient has been admitted to the hospital with a hnp l4 5 segment diagnosis after 24 hours the patient is able to ambulate with assistance with redu
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023

1. A patient has been admitted to the hospital with an L4-5 HNP diagnosis. After 24 hours, the patient is able to ambulate with assistance and has reduced muscle spasms. Which of the following medications was the most beneficial in changing the patient's mobility status?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Flexeril. Flexeril is a muscle relaxant commonly used to treat acute muscle pain and spasms. In this scenario, the patient experiencing reduced muscle spasms and improved mobility after taking Flexeril indicates its effectiveness. Choice A, Mivacron, is a neuromuscular blocking agent that is not typically used for muscle spasms or pain relief. Choice B, Atropine, is a medication used to treat certain types of nerve agent and pesticide poisonings, not muscle spasms. Choice C, Bethanechol, is a medication that stimulates bladder contractions and is not indicated for muscle spasms or mobility improvement.

2. In Parkinson's disease, a client's difficulty in performing voluntary movements is known as:

Correct answer: C.

Rationale: In Parkinson's disease, the client's difficulty in performing voluntary movements is termed dyskinesia. Dyskinesia refers to the impairment of the ability to execute voluntary muscle movements. Akinesia, on the other hand, refers to the absence or lack of voluntary movement. Chorea is characterized by involuntary, rapid, irregular movements. Dystonia involves sustained muscle contractions resulting in abnormal postures or twisting movements. Therefore, dyskinesia is the specific term used for the described difficulty in Parkinson's disease.

3. A patient asks a nurse the following question: Exposure to TB can be best identified with which of the following procedures?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Mantoux test, also known as the tuberculin skin test, is the most appropriate and accurate test to identify exposure to TB. This test involves injecting a small amount of PPD tuberculin under the top layer of the skin, and a positive reaction indicates exposure to the TB bacteria. Choice A, a chest x-ray, is useful for detecting active TB disease but not exposure. Choice C, a breath sounds examination, is not a specific test for TB exposure. Choice D, a sputum culture for Mycobacterium tuberculosis, is used to diagnose active TB infection rather than exposure.

4. The client has been taking divalproex (Depakote) for the management of bipolar disorder. The nurse should give priority to monitoring which laboratory test?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Alanine aminotransferase (ALT). Monitoring ALT levels is crucial when a patient is taking divalproex (Depakote) due to the risk of drug-induced hepatitis. Elevated ALT levels indicate liver damage or disorders, which can be a side effect of Depakote. Serum glucose (choice B) is not the priority for monitoring in this case, as the medication does not directly affect glucose levels. Serum creatinine (choice C) is not the most relevant test to monitor for Depakote use; it primarily assesses kidney function. Serum electrolytes (choice D) are important but do not take precedence over monitoring ALT levels when a patient is on Depakote.

5. A client goes to the Emergency Department with acute respiratory distress and the following arterial blood gases (ABGs): pH 7.35, PCO2 40 mmHg, PO2 63 mmHg, HCO3 23, and oxygenation saturation (SaO2) 93%. Which of the following represents the best analysis of the etiology of these ABGs?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A combined low PO2 and low SaO2 indicate hypoxia. The pH, PCO2, and HCO3 are normal. ABGs are not necessarily altered in TB or pleural effusion. In pneumonia, the PO2 and PCO2 might be low due to hypoxia stimulating hyperventilation, but the given ABG values specifically point to hypoxia as the primary issue.

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