NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Exam Cram
1. Which type of cells secrete insulin?
- A. alpha cells
- B. beta cells
- C. CD4 cells
- D. helper cells
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Beta cells are responsible for secreting insulin. Insulin is produced by beta cells in the pancreas and plays a crucial role in regulating blood sugar levels. Alpha cells secrete glucagon, not insulin (Choice A). CD4 cells are a type of immune cell that helps coordinate the immune response (Choice C). Helper cells are a type of immune cell that aids in activating other immune cells (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is beta cells.
2. Elderly persons with pernicious anemia should be instructed:
- A. to increase their dietary intake of foods high in B12.
- B. that they do not need to return for follow-up for at least a month after initiation of treatment.
- C. that oral B12 is safer and less expensive than parenteral replacement.
- D. that diarrhea can be a transient side effect of B12 injections.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elderly persons with pernicious anemia, a condition characterized by vitamin B12 deficiency due to lack of intrinsic factor, should be informed about the potential side effects of B12 injections. Diarrhea is a known transient side effect of B12 injections, along with pain and burning at the injection site, and peripheral vascular thrombosis. Increasing dietary intake of B12-rich foods would not be sufficient due to the malabsorption issue in pernicious anemia. Follow-up is essential in managing pernicious anemia, so instructing patients they do not need to return for follow-up is incorrect. While oral B12 may be a suitable option for some cases, it is not the preferred choice for pernicious anemia where malabsorption is the primary issue.
3. A client needs to rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration of a medication. Rather than wait for steady state to be achieved, the physician might order:
- A. a maintenance dose.
- B. a loading dose.
- C. a medication with no first-pass effect.
- D. the medication to be given intravenously.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration, a loading or priming dose is ordered. This dose quickly establishes the desired drug level. It is calculated by multiplying the volume of distribution by the desired plasma drug concentration. A maintenance dose, like choice A, is used to maintain the therapeutic level after the loading dose. Waiting for steady state without a loading dose would take five drug half-lives. Choice C, a medication with no first-pass effect, does not directly address the need for rapid attainment of therapeutic levels. While intravenous administration (choice D) offers excellent bioavailability, a single dose by this route may not achieve the desired therapeutic plasma concentration as rapidly as a loading dose.
4. If your patient is acutely psychotic, which of the following independent nursing interventions would not be appropriate?
- A. Conveying calmness through one-on-one interaction
- B. Recognizing and managing your own feelings to prevent escalation of the patient's anxiety level
- C. Encouraging client participation in group therapy
- D. Listening and identifying causes of their behavior
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient is acutely psychotic, they may not be able to effectively participate in group therapy due to their altered mental state. Group settings can be overwhelming and may exacerbate the patient's symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are appropriate interventions. Choice A is correct as providing calmness through one-on-one interaction can be beneficial in establishing trust and reducing anxiety. Choice B is also important as recognizing and managing the nurse's feelings can prevent further escalation of the patient's symptoms. Choice D is relevant as listening and identifying causes of the patient's behavior can aid in understanding and providing appropriate care tailored to the patient's needs.
5. The client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is asking for help with the repetitive behaviors. The nurse knows that these are a method of dealing with:
- A. Fearful situations
- B. Depression
- C. Delusions
- D. Anxiety
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Anxiety. Repetitive behaviors in OCD serve as a way for individuals to cope with their anxiety. These behaviors are often performed to reduce the distress caused by obsessive thoughts. Choice A, fearful situations, is incorrect because the behaviors are more related to managing anxiety rather than fear itself. Choice B, depression, is incorrect as OCD behaviors are not typically a method of coping with depression. Choice C, delusions, is also incorrect as these behaviors are not aimed at managing delusional thoughts but rather anxiety in OCD.
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