Nursing Elites

1. Which type of cells secrete insulin?

• A. alpha cells
• B. beta cells
• C. CD4 cells
• D. helper cells

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Beta cells are responsible for secreting insulin. Insulin is produced by beta cells in the pancreas and plays a crucial role in regulating blood sugar levels. Alpha cells secrete glucagon, not insulin (Choice A). CD4 cells are a type of immune cell that helps coordinate the immune response (Choice C). Helper cells are a type of immune cell that aids in activating other immune cells (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is beta cells.

2. Elderly persons with pernicious anemia should be instructed:

• A. to increase their dietary intake of foods high in B12.
• B. that they do not need to return for follow-up for at least a month after initiation of treatment.
• C. that oral B12 is safer and less expensive than parenteral replacement.
• D. that diarrhea can be a transient side effect of B12 injections.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elderly persons with pernicious anemia, a condition characterized by vitamin B12 deficiency due to lack of intrinsic factor, should be informed about the potential side effects of B12 injections. Diarrhea is a known transient side effect of B12 injections, along with pain and burning at the injection site, and peripheral vascular thrombosis. Increasing dietary intake of B12-rich foods would not be sufficient due to the malabsorption issue in pernicious anemia. Follow-up is essential in managing pernicious anemia, so instructing patients they do not need to return for follow-up is incorrect. While oral B12 may be a suitable option for some cases, it is not the preferred choice for pernicious anemia where malabsorption is the primary issue.

3. An RN on your unit has had an argument with the family of a client regarding the way in which the RN has changed the client's dressing. The family is adamant that the dressing change was performed incorrectly. The RN insists that sterile technique was observed. As an RN manager, what is the best response?

• A. Meet with the family member and the RN to discuss the disagreement regarding the dressing change.
• B. Talk to the family member and assure them that the nurse followed the hospital procedure.
• C. Discuss the dressing change procedure with the RN and compare it to a current textbook.
• D. Change the RN's assignment the next day to another client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When conflict occurs, it is best to meet with both parties together to discuss the problem. This approach allows each party to hear what the other is saying and prevents the RN manager from being caught in the middle. By facilitating a discussion between the family member and the RN, they can work together to find a resolution or the manager can mediate. This promotes open communication, understanding, and collaboration. Option A is the correct choice because it emphasizes addressing the conflict directly and seeking a mutual understanding. Option B is incorrect because just assuring the family member may not address the underlying issues. Option C is incorrect as it does not involve the family member in the resolution process. Option D is inappropriate as it doesn't address the conflict but rather avoids it by changing the RN's assignment.

4. A client is admitted for observation following an unrestrained motor vehicle accident. A bystander stated that he lost consciousness for 1-2 minutes. On admission, the client's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) was 14. The GCS is now 12. The nurse should:

• A. Re-assess in 15 minutes
• B. Stimulate the client with a sternal rub
• C. Administer Tylenol with codeine for a headache
• D. Notify the physician

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A decrease in the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score from 14 to 12 indicates a significant neurological change in the client's condition. This change can be indicative of a deterioration in the client's neurological status, possibly due to intracranial bleeding or swelling. It is crucial for the nurse to notify the physician immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention. Re-assessing in 15 minutes or stimulating the client with a sternal rub are not appropriate actions in this situation as they do not address the underlying cause of the decrease in GCS. Administering Tylenol with codeine for a headache is also not recommended without further assessment and evaluation of the client's condition.

5. A client receiving drug therapy with furosemide and digitalis requires careful observation and care. In planning care for this client, the nurse should recognize that which of the following electrolyte imbalances is most likely to occur?

• A. hyperkalemia
• B. hypernatremia
• C. hypokalemia
• D. hypomagnesemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is receiving drug therapy with furosemide and digitalis, the nurse should anticipate the development of hypokalemia due to the potassium-wasting effects of furosemide. Hypokalemia can potentiate digitalis toxicity. While hyperkalemia is a concern with some medications, it is not typically associated with furosemide and digitalis. Furosemide can lead to hyponatremia, not hypernatremia, due to its diuretic effect. Hypomagnesemia, though a possible imbalance, is not the most likely to occur in this scenario as furosemide and digitalis are more commonly associated with hypokalemia.

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