Nursing Elites

1. A paraplegic client is in the hospital to be treated for an electrolyte imbalance. Which level of care is the client currently receiving?

• A. primary prevention
• B. secondary prevention
• C. tertiary prevention
• D. health promotion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. The client is currently receiving secondary prevention care. Secondary prevention focuses on early detection of disease, prompt intervention, and health maintenance for clients experiencing health problems. In this case, the electrolyte imbalance is a health problem that requires treatment to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because primary prevention is focused on health promotion and specific protections against illness before it occurs, tertiary prevention is aimed at helping rehabilitate clients after the illness is diagnosed and treated, and health promotion is a broader concept that includes activities aimed at improving overall health and well-being rather than targeting a specific health problem like an electrolyte imbalance.

2. In conducting a health screening for 12-month-old children, the nurse expects them to have been immunized against which of the following diseases?

• A. measles, polio, pertussis, hepatitis B
• B. diphtheria, pertussis, polio, tetanus
• C. rubella, polio, pertussis, hepatitis A
• D. measles, mumps, rubella, polio

Correct answer: B

Rationale: By 12 months of age, children should have received vaccines for diphtheria, pertussis, polio, and tetanus (DTaP and IPV). The correct answer is B as it includes these vaccines that are typically administered in the first year of life. Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccination usually begins at 12 months of age but is not expected to be completed by this time. Choices A and C are incorrect as they include diseases that are not part of the routine immunization schedule for a 12-month-old child.

3. When a nurse asks a client to repeat the word 'ninety-nine' while listening through the stethoscope and is able to hear the word clearly, which assessment finding is being documented?

• A. Normal egophony
• B. Abnormal vesicular breath sounds
• C. Abnormal bronchophony
• D. Normal whispered pectoriloquy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse is documenting an abnormal bronchophony assessment finding. Bronchophony is a technique where the nurse asks the client to repeat a specific word, such as 'ninety-nine,' while listening through the stethoscope. Normally, the voice transmission is soft, muffled, and indistinct. However, if there is a pathologic condition increasing lung density, the nurse will hear the word clearly, indicating an abnormality. Vesicular breath sounds are normal sounds heard over peripheral lung fields and are not related to vocal resonance assessment. Egophony involves the client phonating a long 'ee-ee-ee-ee' sound, not repeating a specific word. Whispered pectoriloquy involves whispering a phrase like 'one-two-three,' not repeating a specific word. In these cases, normal findings are 'eeeeee' for egophony and a muffled, almost inaudible sound for whispered pectoriloquy.

4. When assessing Mr. Lee's eye condition, what general information should the nurse seek?

• A. Type of employment.
• B. Burning or itchy sensation in the eyes.
• C. Position of the eyelids.
• D. Existence of floaters.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient's eye condition, the nurse should seek general information such as the type of employment, activities, allergies, medications, lenses, and protective devices used. This information helps in understanding potential exposures to irritants and risks related to activities. While the presence of burning or itchy sensation in the eyes, position of the eyelids, and existence of floaters are important aspects to assess during a focused eye examination, during the initial assessment, the type of employment is more relevant for understanding possible environmental factors affecting eye health.

5. Nurses caring for clients who have cancer and are taking opioids need to assess for all of the following except:

• A. tolerance.
• B. constipation.
• C. sedation.
• D. addiction.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'addiction.' When caring for clients with cancer who are taking opioids, nurses need to assess for tolerance, constipation, and sedation as these are common side effects of opioid use. Addiction is not a primary concern when managing pain in terminally ill clients, as the goal is effective pain management rather than addiction prevention. Tolerance refers to the body's adaptation to the opioid over time, requiring higher doses for the same effect. Constipation and sedation are common side effects of opioids that nurses need to monitor and manage. Addiction is not a major concern in this population as the focus is on providing comfort and pain relief.

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