Nursing Elites

1. A paraplegic client is in the hospital to be treated for an electrolyte imbalance. Which level of care is the client currently receiving?

• A. primary prevention
• B. secondary prevention
• C. tertiary prevention
• D. health promotion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. The client is currently receiving secondary prevention care. Secondary prevention focuses on early detection of disease, prompt intervention, and health maintenance for clients experiencing health problems. In this case, the electrolyte imbalance is a health problem that requires treatment to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because primary prevention is focused on health promotion and specific protections against illness before it occurs, tertiary prevention is aimed at helping rehabilitate clients after the illness is diagnosed and treated, and health promotion is a broader concept that includes activities aimed at improving overall health and well-being rather than targeting a specific health problem like an electrolyte imbalance.

2. A nurse is reviewing the findings of a physical examination documented in a client's record. Which piece of information does the nurse recognize as objective data?

• A. The client is allergic to strawberries
• B. The last menstrual period was 30 days ago
• C. The client takes acetaminophen (Tylenol) for headaches
• D. A 1-2-inch scar is present on the lower right portion of the abdomen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Objective data in a physical examination are findings that the healthcare provider observes or measures directly. In this case, a 1 × 2-inch scar present on the lower right portion of the abdomen is a physical observation. Subjective data are based on what the client reports, such as allergies (Choice A), the date of the last menstrual period (Choice B), and self-reported medication use for headaches (Choice C). While these pieces of information are important for assessing the client's health, they are considered subjective data because they rely on the client's self-report rather than direct observation by the healthcare provider.

3. An LPN is taking care of an elderly client who experiences the effects of Sundowner's Syndrome almost every evening. Which of these interventions implemented by the nurse would be the most helpful?

• A. Place a nightlight in the client's room.
• B. Administer the PRN sedative prescribed by the attending physician.
• C. Remind the client that the things and people they are seeing are not real and that they are safe.
• D. Turn on the TV or radio to a station the client enjoys.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A nightlight will help reorient the client to his or her surroundings in the evening and nighttime hours. It is best not to challenge the reality of a client experiencing Sundowner's Syndrome, and sedatives may make the effects of the syndrome worse. Every effort should be made to keep the client's room calm, quiet, and peaceful, so noise should be kept to a minimum. Reminding the client that what they are experiencing is not real may cause distress and confusion, while turning on the TV or radio may add unnecessary stimulation instead of promoting a soothing environment.

4. What classification of drug is Diltiazem?

• A. Calcium-Channel Blocker
• B. NSAID
• C. ACE Inhibitor
• D. Beta-Blocker

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diltiazem belongs to the class of calcium-channel blockers, not NSAIDs, ACE Inhibitors, or Beta-Blockers. Calcium-channel blockers like Diltiazem are used to treat conditions such as hypertension by relaxing blood vessels and increasing the supply of blood and oxygen to the heart. Therefore, the correct classification for Diltiazem is a Calcium-Channel Blocker. NSAIDs, ACE Inhibitors, and Beta-Blockers belong to different classes of drugs with distinct mechanisms of action and therapeutic uses, making them incorrect choices for Diltiazem.

5. When obtaining a health history on a menopausal woman, which information should a nurse recognize as a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy?

• A. family history of stroke
• B. ovaries removed before age 45
• C. frequent hot flashes and/or night sweats
• D. unexplained vaginal bleeding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When obtaining a health history on a menopausal woman, unexplained vaginal bleeding should be recognized as a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy. This is because it can be a sign of underlying issues that need to be addressed before starting hormone therapy. A family history of stroke is not a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy unless the woman herself has a history of stroke or blood-clotting events. Ovaries removed before age 45 is not a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy. Frequent hot flashes and/or night sweats can be relieved by hormone replacement therapy; therefore, they are not contraindications.

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