Nursing Elites

1. What are major competencies for the nurse giving end-of-life care?

• A. demonstrating respect and compassion, and applying knowledge and skills in the care of the family and the client.
• B. assessing and intervening to support total management of the family and client.
• C. setting goals, expectations, and dynamic changes to care for the client.
• D. keeping all sad news away from the family and client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Major competencies for nurses providing end-of-life care involve a combination of skills and qualities. Demonstrating respect and compassion towards the family and the client is essential in end-of-life care. Additionally, applying knowledge and skills in caring for both the family and the client is crucial to ensure comprehensive and compassionate care. Option A is the correct choice as it accurately reflects these key competencies. Option B, which focuses on assessing and intervening for total management, is important but does not fully address the holistic approach necessary for end-of-life care. Option C, about setting goals and expectations, is relevant but not as critical as the core competencies mentioned in option A. Option D is incorrect as withholding sad news goes against the principles of honesty and transparency in end-of-life care.

2. A nurse auscultating the fetal heart rate (FHR) of a pregnant client in the first trimester of pregnancy notes that the FHR is 160 beats/min. With this information, what should be the nurse's next action?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the finding.
• B. Document the findings.
• C. Tell the client that the FHR is faster than normal but that it is nothing to be concerned about at this time.
• D. Wait 15 minutes and then recheck the FHR.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An FHR of 160 beats/min in the first trimester of pregnancy is within the normal range, which is generally 120 to 160 beats/min. The appropriate action for the nurse in this situation is to document the findings. There is no need to notify the healthcare provider as this is a normal finding. Informing the client that the FHR is faster than normal may cause unnecessary anxiety, as it falls within the expected range. Waiting to recheck the FHR is not necessary since the rate is already within the normal range.

3. A client with peripheral artery disease tells the nurse that pain develops in his left calf when he is walking and subsides with rest. The nurse documents that the client is most likely experiencing which disorder?

• A. Venous insufficiency
• B. Intermittent claudication
• C. Sore muscles from overexertion
• D. Muscle cramps related to musculoskeletal problems

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Leg pain characteristic of peripheral artery disease is known as intermittent claudication. The client can walk only a certain distance before cramping, burning, muscle discomfort, or pain forces them to stop, with the pain subsiding after rest. The pain is reproducible, and as the disease progresses, the client can walk shorter distances before the pain recurs. Ultimately, pain may even occur at rest. Venous insufficiency (Choice A) involves impaired blood flow in the veins, leading to swelling and skin changes but not typically pain associated with exercise. Sore muscles from overexertion (Choice C) and muscle cramps related to musculoskeletal problems (Choice D) do not present with the characteristic pattern of pain associated with peripheral artery disease.

4. An LPN is reviewing medication lists for several clients recently admitted to the hospital. Which of the following scenarios would be least concerning?

• A. A client taking allopurinol for gout states they have been taking black cohosh to help with post-menopausal symptoms.
• B. A client has an order for warfarin and states they have been taking Ginkgo biloba to improve their memory.
• C. A client taking Lipitor states they have been taking ginseng for an energy boost.
• D. A client has a prescription for an SSRI and states they have been taking St. John's wort to also help with their depression.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The least concerning scenario is when a client taking Lipitor states they have been taking ginseng for an energy boost. While ginseng may cause an increased risk of bleeding, it should not interact with Lipitor. On the other hand, St. John's wort should not be taken with an SSRI as it may cause serotonin syndrome, posing a more serious concern. Black cohosh should not be taken with allopurinol as they can both cause hepatotoxicity, especially in combination. Ginkgo biloba should not be taken with warfarin as it causes an increased risk of bleeding, making it a more concerning scenario compared to the client taking Lipitor and ginseng.

5. A client with dumping syndrome should..........................while a client with GERD should..........................

• A. Sit up 1 hour after meals; lie flat 30 minutes after meals
• B. Lie down 1 hour after eating; sit up at least 30 minutes after eating
• C. Sit up after meals; sit up after meals
• D. Lie down after meals; lie down after meals

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a client with dumping syndrome, lying down 1 hour after eating helps reduce symptoms by slowing down the movement of food through the digestive tract, aiding in symptom management. This position assists in symptom management for dumping syndrome. Conversely, for a client with GERD, sitting up at least 30 minutes after eating can help prevent the backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus, reducing reflux symptoms. This upright position is beneficial for managing GERD. Choice A is incorrect because sitting up is recommended for GERD, not dumping syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests sitting up for both conditions, which is not appropriate. Choice D is incorrect as lying down after meals is not recommended for GERD; it can worsen symptoms by promoting acid reflux.

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