Nursing Elites

1. What are major competencies for the nurse giving end-of-life care?

• A. demonstrating respect and compassion, and applying knowledge and skills in the care of the family and the client.
• B. assessing and intervening to support total management of the family and client.
• C. setting goals, expectations, and dynamic changes to care for the client.
• D. keeping all sad news away from the family and client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Major competencies for nurses providing end-of-life care involve a combination of skills and qualities. Demonstrating respect and compassion towards the family and the client is essential in end-of-life care. Additionally, applying knowledge and skills in caring for both the family and the client is crucial to ensure comprehensive and compassionate care. Option A is the correct choice as it accurately reflects these key competencies. Option B, which focuses on assessing and intervening for total management, is important but does not fully address the holistic approach necessary for end-of-life care. Option C, about setting goals and expectations, is relevant but not as critical as the core competencies mentioned in option A. Option D is incorrect as withholding sad news goes against the principles of honesty and transparency in end-of-life care.

2. A client who was given a diagnosis of hypertension 3 months ago is at the clinic for a checkup. Which type of database does the nurse use in performing an assessment?

• A. Emergency
• B. Follow-up
• C. Complete (total)
• D. Problem-centered

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Follow-up.' A follow-up database is used to assess the status of an identified problem at regular intervals. An emergency database is for urgent data collection during life-saving measures. A complete database involves a full health history and physical examination. A problem-centered (episodic) database focuses on a limited or short-term issue, typically centered around one problem or body system.

3. How should a nurse listen to the breath sounds of a client?

• A. Ask the client to lie prone.
• B. Ask the client to breathe in and out through the nose.
• C. Hold the bell of the stethoscope lightly against the chest.
• D. Listen for at least one full respiration in each location on the chest.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To best listen to breath sounds, the nurse should have the client sit, leaning slightly forward, with arms resting comfortably across the lap. The client should be instructed to breathe through the mouth a little deeper than usual, but to stop if feeling dizzy. The nurse should hold the flat diaphragm end piece of the stethoscope firmly against the client's chest wall. It is crucial to listen for at least one full respiration in each location on the chest to assess breath sounds accurately. Side-to-side comparison is essential in breath sound assessment. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the correct procedure for listening to breath sounds.

4. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to opiate overdose. Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist that can rapidly reverse the effects of opiates by competitively binding to opioid receptors and displacing the opiates. This action can restore normal respiration and consciousness. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a non-selective beta-blocker used to manage hypertension, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid overdose. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to manage psychotic disorders, not opioid toxicity.

5. A client asks the nurse what risk factors increase the chances of getting skin cancer. The risk factors include all except:

• A. light or fair complexion.
• B. exposure to sun for extended periods of time.
• C. certain diet and foods.
• D. history of bad sunburns.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'certain diet and foods.' Risk factors that increase the chances of getting skin cancer include having a light or fair complexion, a history of bad sunburns, personal or family history of skin cancer, outdoor activities with sun exposure, exposure to X-rays or radiation, exposure to certain chemicals, repeated trauma or injury resulting in scars, age over 50, male gender, and living in specific geographic locations. These factors can contribute to the development of skin cancer. Avoiding exposure to the sun, using protective clothing and sunscreen, and regular skin inspections are key preventive measures. Choice C, 'certain diet and foods,' is incorrect as diet is not a primary risk factor for skin cancer. Options A, B, and D are all valid risk factors associated with an increased risk of developing skin cancer.

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