NCLEX NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. A nurse notes that a client’s physical examination record states that the client’s eyes moved normally through the six cardinal fields of gaze. The nurse interprets this to mean that which aspect of eye function is normal?
- A. Near vision
- B. Central vision
- C. Peripheral vision
- D. Ocular movements
Correct answer: Ocular movements
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Ocular movements.' Moving the eyes through the six cardinal fields of gaze evaluates the function of the eye muscles, such as the medial rectus muscle, superior rectus muscle, superior oblique muscle, lateral rectus muscle, inferior rectus muscle, and inferior oblique muscle. Normal movement in these fields indicates proper ocular movements. Near vision is assessed using a handheld vision screener, central vision with a Snellen chart, and peripheral vision through the confrontation test. Therefore, the evaluation of ocular movements through the six cardinal fields of gaze specifically assesses this aspect of eye function. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they pertain to different aspects of vision function that are evaluated using distinct assessment methods, not through the six cardinal fields of gaze.
2. A client turns her ankle. She is diagnosed as having a Pulled Ligament. This should be documented as a:
- A. sprain.
- B. strain.
- C. subluxation.
- D. dislocation.
Correct answer: strain.
Rationale: The term 'strain' is the correct choice. A strain refers to the excessive stretching of a muscle or tendon, which aligns with a pulled ligament diagnosis. A sprain, on the other hand, involves ligament injury due to twisting motions. 'Subluxation' indicates a partial dislocation of a joint, not a pulled ligament. 'Dislocation' refers to the complete displacement of bones in a joint, which is not the appropriate term for a pulled ligament.
3. Which intervention should the nurse stop the nursing assistant from performing?
- A. Emptying the Jackson-Pratt drainage of the client post cholecystectomy
- B. Performing passive range of motion on the client with right-sided paralysis
- C. Placing the traction weights on the bed to transfer the client to X-ray
- D. Discarding the first urine voided by the client starting a 24-hour urine test
Correct answer: Placing the traction weights on the bed to transfer the client to X-ray
Rationale: Placing traction weights on the bed to transfer the client to X-ray is an intervention that the nurse should stop the nursing assistant from performing. Traction should never be relieved without a doctor's order as it can result in muscle spasm and tissue damage. The other choices are appropriate nursing interventions and should not be stopped. Emptying the Jackson-Pratt drainage, performing passive range of motion, and collecting the first urine void for a 24-hour urine test are all within the scope of practice and do not pose immediate risks to the client's well-being.
4. Which instruction should be given in a health education class regarding testicular cancer?
- A. All males should perform a testicular exam after a warm bath or shower.
- B. Testicular exams should be performed on a daily basis.
- C. Reddening or darkening of the scrotum is a normal finding.
- D. Testicular exams should be performed after a warm bath or shower.
Correct answer: D: Testicular exams should be performed after a warm bath or shower.
Rationale: The correct instruction for testicular cancer education is that testicular exams should be performed after a warm bath or shower as it relaxes the scrotum and makes the exam easier. Testicular exams should be done monthly by all men starting around age 15, not after the age of 30 (Choice A) or on a daily basis (Choice B), which is unnecessary and may lead to unnecessary anxiety. Reddening or darkening of the scrotum is not a normal finding (Choice C) and should be reported to a healthcare provider for further evaluation.
5. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?
- A. renal failure
- B. psoriasis
- C. lupus
- D. cirrhosis
Correct answer: cirrhosis
Rationale: Cirrhosis is the correct answer. In cirrhosis, the liver is unable to detoxify ammonia to urea, leading to an accumulation of ammonia in the blood. This can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by high ammonia levels affecting brain function. Renal failure (Choice A), psoriasis (Choice B), and lupus (Choice C) are not directly associated with an increased risk of high ammonia levels as seen in cirrhosis.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX Basic
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
NCLEX Basic
- 5,000 Questions and answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX Coverage
- 90 days access @ $69.99