Nursing Elites

1. A client states, 'I can leave the diaphragm in place as long as I want after intercourse.' Which statement indicates to the nurse that the client needs further information on how to use the diaphragm?

• A. 'I need to reapply spermicidal cream with repeated intercourse.'
• B. 'The diaphragm needs to be filled with spermicidal cream before insertion.'
• C. 'I can leave the diaphragm in place as long as I want after intercourse.'
• D. 'The diaphragm can be inserted as long as 6 hours before intercourse.'

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the statement, 'I can leave the diaphragm in place as long as I want after intercourse.' This statement indicates a lack of understanding about the correct use of the diaphragm. The diaphragm must be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse to ensure effectiveness and reduce the risk of pregnancy. Leaving the diaphragm in place for an extended period can lead to toxic shock syndrome. Choice A is correct as spermicidal cream needs to be reapplied before each act of intercourse for optimal contraceptive efficacy. Choice B is a correct statement as the diaphragm should be filled with spermicidal cream before insertion to increase its effectiveness. Choice D is also accurate as the diaphragm can be inserted up to 6 hours before intercourse to allow time for proper placement and effectiveness.

2. Which of the following statements indicates that the provider understands how to promote rest and sleep for the client?

• A. If you would prefer not to be disturbed, we can postpone all vital signs and assessments until tomorrow morning.
• B. With your physical therapy appointments, you cannot nap more during the day even if your sleep is often interrupted at nighttime.
• C. I can try to incorporate any sleep rituals or an ideal bedtime into your routine.
• D. We cannot group together medications, assessments, and other interventions so you may have multiple interruptions at night.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I can try to incorporate any sleep rituals or an ideal bedtime into your routine.' To promote rest and sleep, the provider should consider incorporating the client's preferred sleep rituals or bedtime routine. This statement shows an understanding of the importance of individualizing care to promote restful sleep. Choices A, B, and D do not directly address promoting rest and sleep. Choice A focuses on postponing assessments, Choice B addresses napping during the day, and Choice D mentions multiple interruptions at night, none of which directly support promoting rest and sleep for the client.

3. What is a common side effect of Rifampin concerning the client's contact lenses?

• A. The client's urine might turn blue.
• B. The client remains infectious to others for 48 hours.
• C. The client's contact lenses might be stained orange.
• D. The client's skin might take on a crimson glow.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that the client's contact lenses might be stained orange. Rifampin has the unusual effect of turning body fluids an orange color. Soft contact lenses might become permanently stained, making this an important side effect for the client to be aware of. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. There is no documented effect of Rifampin causing the client's urine to turn blue, the client remaining infectious for 48 hours, or the client's skin taking on a crimson glow.

4. What should be the primary action for a client who has just vomited 300 cc of bright red blood?

• A. Document the vomiting.
• B. Increase IV fluids.
• C. Get a complete blood count.
• D. Check the blood pressure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for a client who has just vomited 300 cc of bright red blood is to check the blood pressure. This assessment is crucial to evaluate for hypotension, which could indicate significant blood loss and the need for immediate intervention. Documenting the vomiting is important for the client's medical record but not the initial priority. Increasing IV fluids and getting a complete blood count are necessary steps but should follow the assessment of the client's hemodynamic status.

5. The nurse manager of a quality improvement program asks a nurse in the neurological unit to conduct a retrospective audit. Which action should the auditing nurse plan to perform in this type of audit?

• A. Checking the crash cart to ensure that all needed supplies are readily available in case of an emergency
• B. Checking the documentation written by a new nursing graduate on her assigned clients at the end of the shift
• C. Reviewing neurological assessment checklists for all clients on the unit to ensure that these assessments are being conducted as prescribed
• D. Obtaining the assigned medical record from the hospital's medical record room to review documentation made during a client's hospital stay

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quality improvement, also known as performance improvement, focuses on processes contributing to client safety and care outcomes. Retrospective audits involve reviewing medical records after discharge for compliance with standards. Concurrent audits assess staff compliance during a client's stay. Therefore, obtaining the medical record from the hospital's record room for review is crucial in a retrospective audit. Options A, B, and C are more suited for concurrent audits as they involve real-time assessment during a client's stay.

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