Nursing Elites

1. Which of these would be an appropriate meal for a client with Celiac disease?

• A. egg noodles with cream sauce and broccoli, oat cookie, almond milk
• B. turkey sandwich with rye bread, carrots
• C. chicken and rice, apple, and tapioca pudding
• D. granola and dried apricots with cow's milk

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For individuals with Celiac disease, it's crucial to avoid gluten-containing foods. Choice C, which includes chicken, rice, apple, and tapioca pudding, is the most suitable option as all these foods are naturally gluten-free. Rice, fruits, vegetables, meat, dairy, and tapioca are all safe gluten-free options. Oats can be gluten-free if specially labeled, but many are processed on shared equipment with wheat. Granola often contains oats that may have been exposed to gluten. Dried and prepackaged fruits may contain gluten additives. Rye is a wheat derivative, and cream sauces usually contain flour as a base, making choices A and B inappropriate for individuals with Celiac disease.

2. While documenting on a paper form, the nurse realizes they have made a mistake writing the progress note. What should the nurse do?

• A. Use a black marker to fully cover up the mistake.
• B. Do not make any changes to the progress note but explain later in the note that a mistake was made and note what should have been written.
• C. Use whiteout to cover over the mistake and write over it.
• D. Inform the client about the mistake and offer to provide a corrected copy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, it is essential for the nurse not to alter the original progress note. Option B is the correct course of action as it maintains the integrity of the documentation while acknowledging the error for transparency and accuracy. Using a black marker (Option A) or whiteout (Option C) can be seen as an attempt to conceal the mistake, which is not in line with professional standards. Option D is incorrect because the mistake should be addressed within the documentation itself, not by informing the client directly about it.

3. Which hormone in the urine is specifically indicative of pregnancy?

• A. estrogen
• B. progesterone
• C. testosterone
• D. human chorionic gonadotropin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Human chorionic gonadotropin is the hormone specifically indicative of pregnancy as it is produced by the placenta after implantation. It can be detected in urine and blood samples to confirm pregnancy. Estrogen and progesterone play crucial roles in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy but are not specific indicators of pregnancy on their own. Testosterone is a hormone primarily associated with male reproductive functions and is not directly related to pregnancy, making it an incorrect choice in this context.

4. A nurse is assisting a new nursing graduate with organizational skills in delivering client care. The nurse determines that the new nursing graduate needs assistance with time management if the new graduate takes which action?

• A. Gathers supplies before beginning a task
• B. Allows time for unexpected tasks
• C. Prioritizes client needs and daily tasks
• D. Documents task completion and client information at the end of the day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Gathers supplies before beginning a task.' This action indicates a lack of effective time management because gathering supplies before starting a task can lead to inefficiency and time wastage. Effective time management involves organizing tasks efficiently, which includes having all necessary supplies ready before initiating a task. Allowing time for unexpected tasks, prioritizing client needs and daily tasks, and documenting task completion and client information at the end of the day are all essential components of good time management practices. Therefore, the new nursing graduate should focus on improving the timing of supply gathering to enhance time management skills. The other choices are not indicative of poor time management; instead, they demonstrate important aspects of effective time management in client care delivery.

5. Which is the proper hand position for performing chest vibration?

• A. cup the hands
• B. use the side of the hands
• C. flatten the hands
• D. spread the fingers of both hands

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct hand position for performing chest vibration is to flatten the hands. By flattening the hands over the area of the body where chest percussion is applied, vibrations can be conducted effectively to the chest to help loosen secretions. Cupping the hands may dampen vibrations, using the side of the hands reduces the surface area in contact with the chest, and spreading the fingers can lead to uneven pressure distribution. Therefore, flattening the hands provides the necessary contact and surface area to perform chest vibration efficiently.

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