a client is having a seizure his blood oxygen saturation drops from 92 to 82 what should the nurse do first
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Next Generation Nclex Questions Overview 3.0 ATI Quizlet

1. A client is having a seizure; his blood oxygen saturation drops from 92% to 82%. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is having a seizure and their blood oxygen saturation drops significantly, the priority action for the nurse is to open the airway. This allows for adequate oxygenation and ventilation. Administering oxygen can come after ensuring the airway is clear. Suctioning the client should be done if there is an airway obstruction, and checking for breathing is part of the assessment but opening the airway takes precedence to ensure proper oxygenation and ventilation during a critical event like a seizure.

2. When observing a dressing change by a graduate nurse on a Stage III pressure ulcer to the greater trochanter by the staff nurse, a need for further teaching is indicated after the following observation by the nurse:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that the new graduate irrigates the pressure ulcer with half-strength hydrogen peroxide. Pressure ulcers should not be cleaned with substances that are cytotoxic, such as hydrogen peroxide or betadine. This can cause further damage to the wound and delay the healing process. Choice A is incorrect because irrigating the pressure ulcer with normal saline is an appropriate practice. Choice C is incorrect because packing the wound with sterile kerlix soaked in normal saline is also an appropriate step. Choice D is incorrect because applying a Duoderm dressing after cleansing is a standard procedure in wound care.

3. Which of the following conditions has a severe complication of respiratory failure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Guillain-Barr� syndrome is characterized by a severe complication of respiratory failure due to the involvement of the peripheral nerves that control breathing. While Bell's palsy, trigeminal neuralgia, and tetanus are also conditions affecting peripheral nerves, they do not typically lead to respiratory failure like Guillain-Barr� syndrome. Bell's palsy causes facial muscle weakness, trigeminal neuralgia results in severe facial pain, and tetanus leads to muscle stiffness and spasms, but none of these conditions directly involve respiratory failure.

4. Which of the following foods can cause diarrhea when consumed by a client with an ileostomy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is coffee. Coffee can cause diarrhea in clients with an ileostomy due to its stimulating effect on the digestive system, leading to increased bowel movements. Eggs, fish, and garlic are less likely to cause diarrhea in individuals with an ileostomy. However, they may contribute to odor due to the way they are digested and broken down in the body, affecting the smell of stool output but not necessarily causing diarrhea.

5. When a client has a chest drainage system in place, where should the system be placed?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A chest drainage system should be placed below the level of the client's chest to ensure proper drainage of fluid from the chest. Placing the system above the level of the chest or at the shoulders would not allow gravity to assist in the drainage process, potentially leading to complications such as fluid accumulation. Similarly, placing it at the level of the chest would not create the necessary gravity-dependent flow for effective drainage, which is crucial for the proper functioning of the chest drainage system.

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