a nurse preparing to examine a clients eyes plans to perform a confrontation test the nurse tells the client that this test measures which aspect of v
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX Questions

1. A nurse preparing to examine a client’s eyes plans to perform a confrontation test. The nurse tells the client that this test measures which aspect of vision?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Peripheral vision. The confrontation test is a gross measure of peripheral vision. It compares the client’s peripheral vision with the nurse’s, assuming that the nurse’s vision is normal. During the test, the nurse positions themselves at eye level with the client, about 2 feet away, and directs the client to cover one eye with an opaque card. The nurse covers the eye opposite the client’s covered one and slowly moves a target (like a pencil) from the periphery in several directions. The client is asked to indicate when they see the target, which should coincide with when the nurse sees it. Near vision is tested using a handheld vision screener with various sizes of print, color vision with the Ishihara test, and distant vision with a Snellen chart. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not measure peripheral vision, which is the focus of the confrontation test.

2. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.

3. When reviewing a client's medical notes to confirm pregnancy, a nurse should look for which finding to determine that pregnancy is confirmed?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To confirm pregnancy, the presence of palpable fetal movement is a positive indicator. Palpable fetal movement is a certain sign of pregnancy, known as a fetal movement felt by the examiner. Amenorrhea is a presumptive sign of pregnancy as it is reported by the woman but is not confirmatory. Thinning of the cervix (Hegar sign) is a probable sign of pregnancy, which is not confirmatory. A positive result on a home urine test for pregnancy is also a probable indicator. However, a positive pregnancy test result can sometimes yield false-positive results due to various factors like medication, recent pregnancy, or errors in reading.

4. A nurse assisting with data collection for a client with kidney failure notes that the client has the appearance of generalized edema over the entire body. The nurse documents this finding using which terminology?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct term for generalized edema over the entire body is 'Anasarca.' Anasarca is indicative of a systemic issue such as congestive heart failure or kidney failure. It does not refer to increased vascularity of the skin tissue. Ecchymosis is a bruise caused by capillary bleeding into the tissues, unrelated to generalized edema. Unilateral edema is swelling in a specific area of the body, not the generalized edema observed in anasarca.

5. The nurse is observing a client self-administer two crushable medications through their G-tube. Which of the following would indicate a need for further instruction?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that the client mixes their medications with their tube-feeding formula. Medications should not be mixed with tube-feeding formula or other medications as it may alter their effectiveness. The G-tube should be flushed before, between, and after the medications to prevent clogging and ensure proper administration. The client should remain in the Semi-Fowler's position for at least 30 minutes after medication administration to prevent reflux. Choice B is correct as it aligns with the proper post-administration positioning. Choices A and C are incorrect as flushing the G-tube before, between, and after medications, and mixing each medication separately in warm water are appropriate procedures that do not indicate a need for further instruction.

Similar Questions

A mother has come to the pediatric clinic concerned about the recent outbreak of West Nile Virus. The ages of her children are 5, 7, and 10. The mother has asked the nurse what she can do to prevent her children from contracting this illness. Which piece of information is best to provide the mother with?
A nurse in the newborn nursery, assisting with data collection for a newborn, prepares to measure the chest circumference. The nurse places the tape measure around the infant at which location?
Which of the following solutions is routinely used to flush an IV device before and after the administration of blood to a client?
A client can receive the Mumps, Measles, Rubella (MMR) vaccine if he or she:
A pregnant client is being educated by a nurse on nutrition and foods rich in folic acid. Which food item does the nurse inform the client contains the highest amount of folic acid?

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