NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX Questions
1. A nurse preparing to examine a client’s eyes plans to perform a confrontation test. The nurse tells the client that this test measures which aspect of vision?
- A. Near vision
- B. Color vision
- C. Distant vision
- D. Peripheral vision
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Peripheral vision. The confrontation test is a gross measure of peripheral vision. It compares the client’s peripheral vision with the nurse’s, assuming that the nurse’s vision is normal. During the test, the nurse positions themselves at eye level with the client, about 2 feet away, and directs the client to cover one eye with an opaque card. The nurse covers the eye opposite the client’s covered one and slowly moves a target (like a pencil) from the periphery in several directions. The client is asked to indicate when they see the target, which should coincide with when the nurse sees it. Near vision is tested using a handheld vision screener with various sizes of print, color vision with the Ishihara test, and distant vision with a Snellen chart. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not measure peripheral vision, which is the focus of the confrontation test.
2. All of the following are common reasons that nurses are reluctant to delegate except:
- A. lack of self-confidence.
- B. desire to maintain authority.
- C. confidence in subordinates.
- D. getting trapped in the 'I can do it better myself' mindset.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'confidence in subordinates.' If a delegator has confidence in their subordinates' abilities, they are more likely to delegate tasks. Reasons why nurses are reluctant to delegate include their own lack of self-confidence, the desire to maintain authority, and getting trapped in the 'I can do it better myself' mindset. Therefore, having confidence in subordinates is not a common reason for reluctance to delegate.
3. A nurse helps a young adult conduct a personal lifestyle assessment. The nurse carefully reviews the assessment with the young adult for which reason?
- A. Young adults may ignore physical symptoms and postpone seeking health care
- B. Young adults are unable to afford health insurance
- C. Young adults are at risk for a serious illness
- D. Young adults are exposed to hazardous substances
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The corrected answer is A: Young adults may ignore physical symptoms and postpone seeking health care. Young adults are usually quite active, experience severe illnesses less commonly than members of older age groups, tend to ignore physical symptoms, and often postpone seeking health care. Clients in this developmental stage may benefit from a personal lifestyle assessment to identify habits that increase the risk for various chronic diseases. Choice B is incorrect because the ability to afford health insurance is not the primary reason for conducting a personal lifestyle assessment. Choice C is incorrect because young adults are not inherently at higher risk for serious illness compared to other age groups. Choice D is incorrect because exposure to hazardous substances is not the main focus when conducting a personal lifestyle assessment.
4. What is the most appropriate intervention for a client with suspected genitourinary trauma and visible blood at the urethral meatus?
- A. Insertion of a Foley catheter.
- B. In-and-out catheter specimen for urinalysis.
- C. A voided urine specimen for urinalysis.
- D. A urologist consult.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A urologist consult is the most appropriate intervention for a client with visible blood at the urethral meatus and suspected genitourinary trauma. This specialist can evaluate the extent of the trauma and provide the necessary treatment. Foley catheter insertion (Choice A) and in-and-out catheter specimen for urinalysis (Choice B) are contraindicated in the presence of genitourinary trauma as they can worsen the injury. While a voided urine specimen for urinalysis (Choice C) may be ordered by the physician, it does not address the specific management needed for genitourinary trauma. Therefore, a urologist consult is the best option in this scenario.
5. The LPN is caring for a client admitted for acute pancreatitis. Which of these medications would be the least appropriate for pain management?
- A. Tylenol
- B. Tramadol
- C. Codeine
- D. Morphine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Morphine is the least appropriate choice for pain management in pancreatitis due to its potential to cause spasms in the Sphincter of Oddi, which can worsen the client's condition by potentially obstructing the pancreatic duct. Tylenol, Tramadol, and Codeine are more suitable options for pain management in acute pancreatitis as they do not carry the same risk of exacerbating the condition by causing spasms in the Sphincter of Oddi.
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