Nursing Elites

1. All of the following factors, when identified in the history of a family, are correlated with poverty except:

• A. high infant mortality rate
• B. frequent use of Emergency Departments
• C. consultation with folk healers
• D. low incidence of dental problems

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'low incidence of dental problems.' Dental problems are prevalent in families living in poverty due to the lack of preventive care and access to dental services. High infant mortality rate is closely correlated with poverty as it reflects various social determinants of health. Families in poverty may resort to frequent use of Emergency Departments due to limited access to primary care. Consulting with folk healers is also common among families in poverty as they might seek alternative and more accessible healthcare options. However, a low incidence of dental problems is less likely in families experiencing poverty.

2. What is the most appropriate intervention for a client with suspected genitourinary trauma and visible blood at the urethral meatus?

• A. Insertion of a Foley catheter.
• B. In-and-out catheter specimen for urinalysis.
• C. A voided urine specimen for urinalysis.
• D. A urologist consult.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urologist consult is the most appropriate intervention for a client with visible blood at the urethral meatus and suspected genitourinary trauma. This specialist can evaluate the extent of the trauma and provide the necessary treatment. Foley catheter insertion (Choice A) and in-and-out catheter specimen for urinalysis (Choice B) are contraindicated in the presence of genitourinary trauma as they can worsen the injury. While a voided urine specimen for urinalysis (Choice C) may be ordered by the physician, it does not address the specific management needed for genitourinary trauma. Therefore, a urologist consult is the best option in this scenario.

3. The LPN is caring for a client newly diagnosed with HIV. Which statement made by the client regarding antiretroviral therapy (ART) would require correction from the nurse?

• A. "If I start ART and use condoms, I'm less likely to transmit HIV to my partner."?
• B. "I can still use ART even though I am Hepatitis C positive."?
• C. "I will need to be on ART indefinitely."?
• D. "I know I will need to come back for blood draws so that I can begin ART when my CD4 count is over 1,000 cells/mm3."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the statement, "I know I will need to come back for blood draws so that I can begin ART when my CD4 count is over 1,000 cells/mm3."? This statement would require correction from the nurse because initiating ART when the CD4 count is over 1,000 cells/mm3 is not supported by guidelines. The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends making treatment a priority for those with a CD4 count of ?350 cells/mm3, as early intervention can help delay disease progression. Therefore, waiting for a CD4 count of over 1,000 cells/mm3 is not in line with current recommendations. Choice A is correct, as studies have shown that using condoms along with ART can significantly reduce the risk of HIV transmission to sexual partners. Choice B is also correct because being Hepatitis C positive does not contraindicate the use of ART. Choice C is correct as well, as ART is typically needed indefinitely to maintain viral suppression and manage HIV. Therefore, the only statement that would require correction is Choice D.

4. A nurse reviewing a client's record notes that the result of the client's latest Snellen chart vision test was 20/80. The nurse interprets the client's results in which way?

• A. The client is legally blind.
• B. The client has normal vision.
• C. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet.
• D. The client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When interpreting visual acuity testing results using the Snellen chart, the recorded numeric fraction represents the distance the client is standing from the chart and the distance a normal eye could read that particular line. A reading of 20/80 means that the client can read at 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet. This indicates visual impairment but does not meet the criteria for legal blindness, which is defined as best-corrected vision in the better eye of 20/200 or worse. Normal visual acuity is 20/20. Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet. Choice A is incorrect because 20/80 does not meet the criteria for legal blindness. Choice B is incorrect as the client's vision is impaired. Choice C is incorrect because it reverses the interpretation of the fraction.

5. A patient reports, "I tore 3 of my 4 Rotator cuff muscles in the past."? Which of the following muscles cannot be considered as possibly being torn?

• A. Teres minor
• B. Teres major
• C. Supraspinatus
• D. Infraspinatus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Teres major. The Rotator Cuff consists of Teres Minor, Infraspinatus, Supraspinatus, and Subscapularis muscles, not Teres major. Teres major is not part of the rotator cuff, so it cannot be considered as possibly being torn. The other choices, Teres minor, Supraspinatus, and Infraspinatus, are all part of the Rotator Cuff and could potentially be torn in this patient's case.

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