Nursing Elites

1. When performing an eye examination, which area can a healthcare provider best visualize using an ophthalmoscope?

• A. Iris
• B. Cornea
• C. Optic disc
• D. Conjunctiva

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An ophthalmoscope is a tool used to visualize the internal structures of the eye during an examination. The optic disc, located on the internal surface of the retina, can be best visualized using an ophthalmoscope. The iris, cornea, and conjunctiva are superficial structures that can be examined without the need for an ophthalmoscope. Therefore, the correct answer is the optic disc. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are external structures that can be examined directly without the use of an ophthalmoscope.

2. A nurse is trying to motivate a client toward more effective management of a therapeutic regimen. Which of the following actions by the nurse is most likely to be effective in increasing the client's motivation?

• A. determining if the client has any family or friends living nearby
• B. developing a concise discharge plan and reviewing it with the client
• C. teaching the client about the disorder at the client's level of understanding
• D. making a referral to an area agency for client follow-up

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To effectively motivate the client, it is important to educate them about the disorder at their level of understanding. This helps the client comprehend the importance of the therapeutic regimen and empowers them to actively participate in their treatment. Choice A, determining if the client has any family or friends living nearby, may provide social support but is less likely to directly impact the client's motivation compared to educating them about their condition. Developing a concise discharge plan, as in choice B, is crucial for continuity of care but may not directly enhance the client's motivation as effectively as providing education tailored to their level of understanding. Making a referral for follow-up, as in choice D, is important for ongoing care but may not have the same immediate impact on the client's motivation as educating them about their condition.

3. A nurse is caring for a pregnant client in the labor unit who suddenly experiences spontaneous rupture of the membranes. On inspecting the amniotic fluid, the nurse notes that it is clear, with creamy white flecks. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take based on this finding?

• A. Check the client's temperature.
• B. Report the findings to the nurse-midwife.
• C. Obtain a sample of the amniotic fluid for laboratory analysis.
• D. Document the findings.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Amniotic fluid should be clear and may include bits of vernix, the creamy white fetal skin lubricant. Therefore, the nurse would most appropriately document the findings. Checking the client's temperature, reporting the findings to the nurse-midwife, and obtaining a sample of the amniotic fluid for laboratory analysis are not necessary in this situation. Cloudy, yellow, or foul-smelling amniotic fluid suggests infection, while green fluid indicates that the fetus passed meconium before birth. If abnormalities are noted, the nurse should notify the nurse-midwife.

4. The LPN is taking care of a client with a documented allergy to Penicillin. After rounds, the LPN notices that the client has an order for Cefazolin. Which of the following actions would be the least appropriate?

• A. The LPN clarifies the severity of the Penicillin allergy.
• B. The LPN discusses the order with the care team prior to administering Cefazolin.
• C. The LPN administers all ordered medications except for the Cefazolin.
• D. The LPN monitors the client after a test dose of Cefazolin is administered.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The least appropriate action is for the LPN to administer all ordered medications except for the Cefazolin. The LPN should always consider the client's documented allergy to Penicillin seriously. It is crucial to discuss the order with the care team before administering Cefazolin to ensure patient safety. Administering a medication that could potentially cause harm due to a documented allergy is unsafe practice. While monitoring the client after a test dose of Cefazolin is important, it should not precede clarification with the care team regarding the allergy and the appropriateness of the medication. Therefore, withholding the Cefazolin is the most appropriate action in this scenario.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia related to a stroke. The nurse works with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration. What is this an example of?

• A. Health promotion
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Primary prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse working with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention to prevent complications or worsening of a condition. In this case, the nurse is helping to prevent aspiration pneumonia by providing education and guidance on safe eating and drinking practices after the client has already experienced dysphagia due to a stroke. Choice A, health promotion, focuses on empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to improve overall well-being and prevent illness. It is more about promoting general health rather than specific interventions related to a particular condition like dysphagia. Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and rehabilitating a condition to prevent further complications or disabilities. In this scenario, the nurse is not yet addressing complications but rather actively preventing them. Choice D, primary prevention, aims to prevent the onset of a disease or condition before it occurs. The client in this case already has dysphagia, so the focus is on preventing further complications, making it a secondary prevention intervention.

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