NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. You are caring for a 78-year-old woman who is wondering why she was diagnosed with glaucoma. Although she has several risk factors, which of these is not one of them?
- A. age
- B. blood pressure reading of 143/89
- C. Mexican-American heritage
- D. 20/80 vision
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Age over 60 and Mexican-American heritage are recognized as risk factors for glaucoma. Elevated blood pressure is also a risk factor due to its potential to cause optic nerve damage. While 20/80 vision indicates poor eyesight, it is not a direct causal factor for glaucoma. Glaucoma is mainly associated with factors like age, ethnicity, and certain medical conditions, rather than a specific visual acuity measurement. Therefore, 20/80 vision is not a risk factor for glaucoma, making it the correct answer. The other choices, such as age, Mexican-American heritage, and elevated blood pressure, are established risk factors for developing glaucoma, as they are associated with an increased likelihood of the condition.
2. A Mexican American client with epilepsy is being seen at the clinic for an initial examination. The nurse understands which primary purpose of including cultural information in the health assessment?
- A. Confirm the medical diagnosis.
- B. Make accurate nursing diagnoses.
- C. Identify any hereditary traits related to the epilepsy.
- D. Determine what the client believes has caused the epilepsy.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The primary purpose for including cultural information in the health assessment is to determine what the client believes has caused the illness. In Mexican American culture, epilepsy is seen as a reflection of physical imbalance. While gathering data on hereditary traits and formulating nursing diagnoses are important, they are not the primary reasons for including cultural information in the health assessment. It is crucial to understand the client's beliefs as they may impact their perceptions of health, treatment adherence, and overall care. It is not the nurse's role to confirm a medical diagnosis, as this is the responsibility of the healthcare provider.
3. The client has been on vancomycin for three days. Which of the following symptoms is least concerning?
- A. nausea
- B. headache
- C. vertigo
- D. tinnitus
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'headache.' While vancomycin can cause ototoxicity leading to symptoms like tinnitus, vertigo, and nausea, headaches are not typically associated with vancomycin use. Therefore, headache is the least concerning symptom in this scenario. Nausea, vertigo, and tinnitus are more likely to be related to vancomycin ototoxicity and should be closely monitored and reported. Headache is a common symptom that may not be directly linked to vancomycin use.
4. When performing an eye examination, which area can a healthcare provider best visualize using an ophthalmoscope?
- A. Iris
- B. Cornea
- C. Optic disc
- D. Conjunctiva
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An ophthalmoscope is a tool used to visualize the internal structures of the eye during an examination. The optic disc, located on the internal surface of the retina, can be best visualized using an ophthalmoscope. The iris, cornea, and conjunctiva are superficial structures that can be examined without the need for an ophthalmoscope. Therefore, the correct answer is the optic disc. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are external structures that can be examined directly without the use of an ophthalmoscope.
5. When assessing a client with deep pitting edema, with the indentation remaining for a short time and visible leg swelling, how should a nurse document this finding?
- A. 1+ edema
- B. 2+ edema
- C. 3+ edema
- D. 4+ edema
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 3+ edema. When assessing for edema, the nurse presses thumbs against the ankle malleolus or the tibia. If the skin retains an indentation, it indicates pitting edema. The grading scale for pitting edema includes: 1+ for mild pitting with slight indentation and no perceptible leg swelling, 2+ for moderate pitting where the indentation subsides rapidly, 3+ for deep pitting with an indentation remaining briefly and visible leg swelling, and 4+ for very deep pitting with a long-lasting indentation and significant leg swelling. Choices A, B, and D do not accurately represent the severity of the edema described in the scenario.
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