Nursing Elites

1. You are caring for a 78-year-old woman who is wondering why she was diagnosed with glaucoma. Although she has several risk factors, which of these is not one of them?

• A. age
• B. blood pressure reading of 143/89
• C. Mexican-American heritage
• D. 20/80 vision

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Age over 60 and Mexican-American heritage are recognized as risk factors for glaucoma. Elevated blood pressure is also a risk factor due to its potential to cause optic nerve damage. While 20/80 vision indicates poor eyesight, it is not a direct causal factor for glaucoma. Glaucoma is mainly associated with factors like age, ethnicity, and certain medical conditions, rather than a specific visual acuity measurement. Therefore, 20/80 vision is not a risk factor for glaucoma, making it the correct answer. The other choices, such as age, Mexican-American heritage, and elevated blood pressure, are established risk factors for developing glaucoma, as they are associated with an increased likelihood of the condition.

2. Which of the following methods of contraception is able to reduce the transmission of HIV and other STDs?

• A. intrauterine device (IUD)
• B. Norplant
• C. oral contraceptives
• D. vaginal sponge

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the vaginal sponge. The vaginal sponge, when used with foam or jelly contraception, acts as a barrier method that can reduce the transmission of HIV and other STDs, in addition to preventing pregnancy. In contrast, IUDs, Norplant, and oral contraceptives are effective in preventing pregnancy but do not provide protection against the transmission of HIV and STDs. IUDs prevent pregnancy by affecting sperm movement and survival, Norplant releases hormones to prevent ovulation, and oral contraceptives work by inhibiting ovulation. However, these methods do not create a physical barrier against HIV and STD transmission. It is important to counsel clients using methods like IUDs, Norplant, and oral contraceptives to also use chemical or barrier contraceptives to lower the risk of HIV or STD transmission.

3. Intramuscular (IM) phytonadione (vitamin K) 0.5 mg is prescribed for a newborn. After the medication is prepared, in which anatomic site does the nurse administer it?

• A. Rectus femoris muscle
• B. Deltoid muscle
• C. Gluteal muscle
• D. Vastus lateralis muscle

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Vitamin K is administered to newborn infants to help prevent hemorrhagic disease. The best site for intramuscular injection in infants is the vastus lateralis muscle. This site is preferred due to its location away from the sciatic nerve, femoral artery, and vein, reducing the risk of complications. The rectus femoris muscle may be used if necessary; however, it is less favorable than the vastus lateralis due to its proximity to vital structures, making injections there more hazardous. The deltoid muscle is not typically used for IM injections in newborns. The gluteal muscles should be avoided until the child has been walking for at least a year, as they are poorly developed and close to the sciatic nerve.

4. The LPN is taking care of a client with a documented allergy to Penicillin. After rounds, the LPN notices that the client has an order for Cefazolin. Which of the following actions would be the least appropriate?

• A. The LPN clarifies the severity of the Penicillin allergy.
• B. The LPN discusses the order with the care team prior to administering Cefazolin.
• C. The LPN administers all ordered medications except for the Cefazolin.
• D. The LPN monitors the client after a test dose of Cefazolin is administered.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The least appropriate action is for the LPN to administer all ordered medications except for the Cefazolin. The LPN should always consider the client's documented allergy to Penicillin seriously. It is crucial to discuss the order with the care team before administering Cefazolin to ensure patient safety. Administering a medication that could potentially cause harm due to a documented allergy is unsafe practice. While monitoring the client after a test dose of Cefazolin is important, it should not precede clarification with the care team regarding the allergy and the appropriateness of the medication. Therefore, withholding the Cefazolin is the most appropriate action in this scenario.

5. When assessing a client with deep pitting edema, with the indentation remaining for a short time and visible leg swelling, how should a nurse document this finding?

• A. 1+ edema
• B. 2+ edema
• C. 3+ edema
• D. 4+ edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 3+ edema. When assessing for edema, the nurse presses thumbs against the ankle malleolus or the tibia. If the skin retains an indentation, it indicates pitting edema. The grading scale for pitting edema includes: 1+ for mild pitting with slight indentation and no perceptible leg swelling, 2+ for moderate pitting where the indentation subsides rapidly, 3+ for deep pitting with an indentation remaining briefly and visible leg swelling, and 4+ for very deep pitting with a long-lasting indentation and significant leg swelling. Choices A, B, and D do not accurately represent the severity of the edema described in the scenario.

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