Nursing Elites

1. A nurse on the night shift is making client rounds. When the nurse checks a client who is 97 years old and has successfully been treated for heart failure, he notes that the client is not breathing. If the client does not have a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order, the nurse should take which action?

• A. Administer cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
• B. Call the client's health care provider
• C. Administer oxygen to the client and call the health care provider
• D. Contact the nursing supervisor for directions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is the appropriate action when a client is not breathing and does not have a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. CPR is considered an emergency treatment that can be provided without client consent in life-threatening situations. Calling the health care provider or nursing supervisor for directions, as well as administering oxygen without addressing the lack of breathing, would delay critical life-saving interventions. Therefore, administering CPR is the most urgent and necessary action to perform in this scenario.

2. A nurse is reading the nurse practice act for the state in which she is employed. The nurse uses the information in this act for which purpose?

• A. To understand hospital and long-term care facility policies
• B. To know the scope of practice for nurses
• C. To identify health care policies in her state
• D. To be aware of the role of the licensed nurse

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'To be aware of the role of the licensed nurse.' Nurse practice acts outline the scope of practice for nurses, defining what constitutes nursing practice and the role of licensed nurses. Choice A is incorrect because hospital and long-term care facility policies are institution-specific and not typically covered in the nurse practice act. Choice B is incorrect as the scope of practice for nurses is a part of the nurse practice act, but it's not the sole purpose for a nurse to refer to it. Choice C is incorrect as health care policies in a state are governed by other legislative acts, not the nurse practice act.

3. A client with dysphagia is ready to eat lunch. Which of these foods on the tray would be best to start with when assisting the client?

• A. diced fruit
• B. apple juice with a liquid thickener
• C. Jell-O�
• D. toast

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct choice is apple juice with a liquid thickener. A client with dysphagia is at risk for aspiration, so it is crucial to start with liquids and assess the client's ability to swallow before introducing solid foods. Using a liquid thickener with apple juice allows the healthcare provider to evaluate swallowing function. Jell-O�, although it melts into a clear liquid, should be avoided initially as it may not provide a clear assessment of swallowing ability. Diced fruit and toast are solid foods that should be introduced only after the client's swallowing ability with liquids has been assessed.

4. Mrs. Peterson complains of difficulty falling asleep, awakening earlier than desired, and not feeling rested. She attributes these problems to leg pain that is secondary to her arthritis. What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for her?

• A. Sleep Pattern Disturbances (related to chronic leg pain)
• B. Fatigue (related to leg pain)
• C. Knowledge Deficit (regarding sleep hygiene measures)
• D. Sleep Pattern Disturbances (related to chronic leg pain)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for Mrs. Peterson is 'Sleep Pattern Disturbances (related to chronic leg pain).' Mrs. Peterson's sleep issues are directly linked to her chronic leg pain, which is a result of her arthritis. This nursing diagnosis addresses the primary cause of her sleep disturbances and allows for interventions that focus on managing the pain to improve her sleep. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A correctly identifies the relationship between sleep disturbances and chronic leg pain, addressing the root cause. Choice B is incorrect as it only focuses on fatigue and does not encompass the broader sleep issues. Choice C is not relevant as there is no indication that Mrs. Peterson lacks knowledge about sleep hygiene measures.

5. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?

• A. renal failure
• B. psoriasis
• C. lupus
• D. cirrhosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cirrhosis is the correct answer. In cirrhosis, the liver is unable to detoxify ammonia to urea, leading to an accumulation of ammonia in the blood. This can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by high ammonia levels affecting brain function. Renal failure (Choice A), psoriasis (Choice B), and lupus (Choice C) are not directly associated with an increased risk of high ammonia levels as seen in cirrhosis.

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