Nursing Elites

1. What action should the emergency triage nurse take upon receiving the history that a client has a severe cough, fever, night sweats, and body wasting?

• A. Place the client in isolation until further assessment is completed.
• B. Seclude the client from other clients and visitors.
• C. Perform no intervention until test results confirm a diagnosis.
• D. Don personal protective equipment immediately.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the emergency triage nurse to take upon receiving the history that a client has a severe cough, fever, night sweats, and body wasting is to seclude the client from other clients and visitors. These symptoms are suggestive of tuberculosis, a highly infectious disease. By secluding the client, the nurse can prevent the potential spread of the infection to others. Donning personal protective equipment, including gown, gloves, and a mask, is crucial when providing care to the client, but the immediate priority is to prevent the spread of infection by isolating the client. Placing the client in isolation until further assessment is completed ensures that the client is kept away from others until a proper diagnosis and treatment plan can be established, reducing the risk of transmission. Performing no intervention until test results confirm a diagnosis is inappropriate as immediate isolation is necessary in suspected cases of highly infectious diseases like tuberculosis.

2. Why is accurate documentation of assessment findings regarding pressure ulcers crucial?

• A. To comply with legal requirements for documenting lesions.
• B. To meet hospital policies for documenting lesions.
• C. To fulfill physician's documentation requirements for lesions.
• D. Because the nursing assessment of ulcers is a standard of nursing practice.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Accurate documentation of assessment findings regarding pressure ulcers is crucial because the nursing assessment of ulcers is a standard practice in nursing care. Documenting these findings not only ensures continuity of care but also plays a vital role in preventing further progression of the ulcer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while laws, hospital policies, and physician requirements may influence documentation practices, the primary reason for accurate documentation lies in the standards of nursing practice and the quality of patient care.

3. When the healthcare provider is determining the appropriate size of an oropharyngeal airway to insert, what part of a client's body should they measure?

• A. corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear
• B. corner of the eye to the top of the ear
• C. tip of the chin to the sternum
• D. tip of the nose to the earlobe

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When selecting the correct size of an oropharyngeal airway, the healthcare provider should measure from the corner of the client's mouth to the tragus of the ear. This measurement ensures that the airway is the appropriate length to maintain a clear air passage for exchange. Measuring from the corner of the eye to the top of the ear (Choice B) is inaccurate and not a standard measurement for selecting the size of an oropharyngeal airway. Measuring from the tip of the chin to the sternum (Choice C) is irrelevant to determining the correct size of the airway. Similarly, measuring from the tip of the nose to the earlobe (Choice D) is also incorrect and does not provide the necessary measurement for selecting an oropharyngeal airway size.

4. Which of the following statements describes the purpose of client restraint?

• A. Restraints are a nursing measure used to maintain client control.
• B. Restraints are an emergency intervention taken as a last resort to protect a client from imminent danger.
• C. Restraints are a therapeutic measure designed to positively reinforce client behavior.
• D. Restraints are an emergency measure that can only be taken by a nurse under the direct supervision of a physician.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Restraints are used as an emergency intervention when all other options to protect a client from imminent danger have been exhausted. Restraints should only be used as a last resort to ensure the safety of the client and others. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because restraints are not used to maintain control, reinforce behavior, or are exclusively taken under direct physician supervision. It is crucial to remember that restraint use should always be based on careful assessment, documentation, and adherence to legal and ethical guidelines.

5. Which of the following symptoms is not indicative of autonomic dysreflexia in the client with a spinal cord injury?

• A. sudden onset of headache
• B. flushed face
• C. hypotension
• D. nasal congestion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is characterized by a sudden onset of symptoms due to an overactive autonomic nervous system. Hypotension is not indicative of autonomic dysreflexia; instead, hypertension is a hallmark sign. Therefore, hypotension is the correct answer. Flushed face, sudden onset of headache, and nasal congestion are classic symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia caused by a noxious stimulus below the level of the spinal cord injury. These symptoms result from the body's attempt to regulate blood pressure when the normal feedback loop is interrupted.

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