Nursing Elites

1. What action should the emergency triage nurse take upon receiving the history that a client has a severe cough, fever, night sweats, and body wasting?

• A. Place the client in isolation until further assessment is completed.
• B. Seclude the client from other clients and visitors.
• C. Perform no intervention until test results confirm a diagnosis.
• D. Don personal protective equipment immediately.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the emergency triage nurse to take upon receiving the history that a client has a severe cough, fever, night sweats, and body wasting is to seclude the client from other clients and visitors. These symptoms are suggestive of tuberculosis, a highly infectious disease. By secluding the client, the nurse can prevent the potential spread of the infection to others. Donning personal protective equipment, including gown, gloves, and a mask, is crucial when providing care to the client, but the immediate priority is to prevent the spread of infection by isolating the client. Placing the client in isolation until further assessment is completed ensures that the client is kept away from others until a proper diagnosis and treatment plan can be established, reducing the risk of transmission. Performing no intervention until test results confirm a diagnosis is inappropriate as immediate isolation is necessary in suspected cases of highly infectious diseases like tuberculosis.

2. The laws enacted by states to provide immunity from liability to persons who provide emergency care at an accident scene are called:

• A. Good Samaritan laws.
• B. HIPAA.
• C. Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA).
• D. OBRA.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Good Samaritan laws. These laws protect individuals who provide voluntary emergency care from being held liable for any unintended injury or harm that may occur during the care. Good Samaritan laws encourage individuals to assist in emergencies without fear of legal repercussions. HIPAA, on the other hand, focuses on safeguarding patient information and privacy, ensuring confidentiality. The Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA) pertains to a patient's rights to make decisions about their medical treatment and advance directives. OBRA, enacted in the late 1980s, aims to improve the quality of care in nursing homes and enhance residents' quality of life, focusing on nursing home reform and standards, which is not directly related to immunity for emergency care providers.

3. A client scheduled for surgery tells the nurse that he signed an informed consent for the surgical procedure but was never told about the risks of the surgery. The nurse serves as the client's advocate by undertaking which action?

• A. Reassuring the client that the risks are minimal
• B. Noting in the client's record that the client was not told about the risks of the surgery
• C. Writing a note on the front of the client's record so that the surgeon will see it when the client arrives in the operating room
• D. Informing the surgeon verbally about the lack of information provided to the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nurse serves as a client advocate by protecting the client's right to be informed and to participate in decisions regarding care. In this scenario, the nurse should document in the client's record that the client was not informed about the risks of the surgery. This action ensures that the issue is officially noted and can be addressed by the healthcare team. Reassuring the client that the risks are minimal is incorrect because it dismisses the client's concerns and does not address the lack of information provided. Writing a note on the client's chart to inform the surgeon is not as effective as ensuring that the issue is officially documented in the client's record, where it can be reviewed and addressed by the healthcare team. Informing the surgeon verbally is not as reliable as documenting the concern in the client's record, which provides a formal and lasting record for review and follow-up.

4. What should be the first action upon the discovery of an electrical fire?

• A. Disconnect the electrical power if it can be done safely
• B. Smother the source with an object like a blanket
• C. Saturate the source with water or another liquid
• D. Immediately activate the fire alarm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct initial action upon discovering an electrical fire is to disconnect the electrical power if it can be done safely. This helps prevent the fire from spreading through the electrical system. Smothering the fire with a blanket is not recommended for electrical fires as it can fuel the fire. Saturating the source with water or other liquids is also not advised as it can lead to electric shock or spread the fire. Activating the fire alarm is important, but it should be done after disconnecting the power to prevent further escalation of the fire.

5. Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?

• A. variable decelerations
• B. early decelerations
• C. bradycardia
• D. tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Variable decelerations can indicate cord compression as they are caused by umbilical cord compression or prolapse. This pattern shows an abrupt decrease in heart rate with an erratic shape, often resembling a V or W. Early decelerations (choice B) are typically caused by head compression during contractions and are considered benign. Bradycardia (choice C) is a consistent low heart rate below 110 bpm and is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (choice D) is an abnormally high heart rate above 160 bpm and is not associated with cord compression.

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