Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following foods present a problem for a client diagnosed with Celiac Disease?

• A. butter
• B. oats or barley cereal
• C. fresh vegetables
• D. coffee or tea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Celiac disease, also known as celiac sprue, is a malabsorption disorder affecting the small intestine due to a problem with ingesting gluten, a protein found in wheat, rye, oats, and barley. Therefore, oats or barley cereal would present a problem for a client with Celiac Disease as they contain gluten. Fresh vegetables, butter, coffee, and tea, on the other hand, do not contain gluten and should not pose any issues for individuals with this disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is oats or barley cereal. Choices A, C, and D are not problematic for clients with Celiac Disease as they are gluten-free.

2. A client is diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following antiviral drug classes are used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?

• A. nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• B. protease inhibitors
• C. HIV fusion inhibitors
• D. all of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All of the provided choices are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, such as tenofovir and emtricitabine, work by interfering with the virus's ability to replicate. Protease inhibitors, like atazanavir and darunavir, block an enzyme that HIV needs to make copies of itself. HIV fusion inhibitors, for instance, enfuvirtide, prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, 'all of the above' is the correct answer as all the listed drug classes are commonly used in managing HIV infections. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of antiretroviral therapy for HIV, targeting different stages of the virus's life cycle. The combination of drugs from these classes is often recommended to effectively control HIV replication and reduce viral load.

3. While receiving an infusion of cefazolin sodium, the client complained of itchy skin. The nurse observed warm, flushed skin with a red rash on the arms, chest, and back. The health care provider was promptly notified.

• A. The client is apparently allergic to cefazolin sodium, as indicated by warm, flushed skin and a rash on the arms, chest, and back.
• B. The client had an allergy to cefazolin sodium.
• C. The health care provider was notified because a rash developed while the client was receiving cefazolin sodium.
• D. During an infusion of cefazolin sodium, the client complained that his skin was itchy. The client's skin was warm and flushed, with a red rash on the arms, chest, and back. The health care provider was notified.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Accurate and objective documentation is essential during an incident report. Choice A makes an assumption of allergy based on subjective interpretation, which is not appropriate. Choice B states a conclusion without proper documentation. Choice C is incomplete as it fails to provide a detailed account of the observed symptoms. Choice D offers a precise description of the client's symptoms, actions taken, and notification of the healthcare provider, making it the most suitable documentation choice.

4. Following a recent tattoo, someone should be screened for:

• A. tuberculosis.
• B. herpes.
• C. hepatitis.
• D. syphilis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Following a recent tattoo, someone should be screened for hepatitis. Tattooing puts a client at risk for blood-borne hepatitis B or C if strict sterile procedures are not followed. Tuberculosis is an airborne pathogen, while herpes and syphilis are spread through direct contact like sexual activity. Therefore, hepatitis is the most relevant infection to screen for after getting a tattoo.

5. A nurse provides instructions to a mother about crib safety for her infant. Which statement by the mother indicates a need for further instructions?

• A. ''Wood surfaces on the crib need to be free of splinters and cracks.''
• B. ''I need to keep large toys out of the crib.''
• C. ''The distance between the slats needs to be no more than 4 inches wide to prevent entrapment of my infant's head or body.''
• D. ''The drop side needs to be impossible for my infant to release.''

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is, ''The distance between the slats needs to be no more than 4 inches wide to prevent entrapment of my infant's head or body.'' This statement indicates a need for further instructions as the distance between the slats should be no more than 2? inches to prevent entrapment of the infant's head and body, not 4 inches. Allowing a larger gap can pose a risk of entrapment or injury to the infant. Keeping large toys out of the crib is essential to prevent the infant from using them to climb out, which could result in serious injuries. Ensuring the drop side of the crib is impossible for the infant to release is crucial to prevent falls and injuries. Additionally, maintaining wood surfaces on the crib free of splinters, cracks, and lead-based paint is vital for the infant's safety and well-being.

Similar Questions