which of the following foods present a problem for a client diagnosed with celiac disease
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Questions Management of Care

1. Which of the following foods present a problem for a client diagnosed with Celiac Disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Celiac disease, also known as celiac sprue, is a malabsorption disorder affecting the small intestine due to a problem with ingesting gluten, a protein found in wheat, rye, oats, and barley. Therefore, oats or barley cereal would present a problem for a client with Celiac Disease as they contain gluten. Fresh vegetables, butter, coffee, and tea, on the other hand, do not contain gluten and should not pose any issues for individuals with this disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is oats or barley cereal. Choices A, C, and D are not problematic for clients with Celiac Disease as they are gluten-free.

2. A client who is immobilized secondary to traction is complaining of constipation. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to be ordered?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Colace is a stool softener that acts by pulling more water into the bowel lumen, making the stool soft and easier to evacuate. In the given scenario of constipation in an immobilized client, a stool softener like Colace is the appropriate choice to help facilitate bowel movements. Advil and Anasaid are nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) used for pain relief, not for constipation. Clinocil is not a recognized medication for constipation relief.

3. All of the following are causes of vaginal bleeding in late pregnancy except:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eclampsia. Eclampsia is a disorder of pregnancy characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. This condition can cause seizures and/or coma but does not typically present with vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are abnormal conditions that can cause bleeding, particularly in the third trimester. Placenta previa (choice A) is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to vaginal bleeding. Abruptio placentae (choice C) is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, causing vaginal bleeding. Uterine rupture (choice D) is a serious obstetrical emergency where the uterus tears during pregnancy or childbirth, resulting in severe bleeding.

4. When assessing a client with terminal cancer receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of morphine sulfate, what should the nurse check first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client with terminal cancer receiving morphine sulfate via continuous intravenous infusion, the nurse's priority should be checking the client's respiratory status first. Morphine sulfate can lead to respiratory depression, emphasizing the need for close monitoring of breathing. While temperature, pulse, and urine output are all essential components of the assessment, ensuring adequate respiratory function takes precedence due to the potential risk of respiratory depression associated with morphine sulfate. Promptly assessing respiratory status enables early identification of any signs of respiratory distress or depression, allowing for immediate intervention if needed.

5. In an obstetrical emergency, which of the following actions should the nurse perform first after the baby delivers?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In an obstetrical emergency, the immediate action the nurse should take after the baby delivers is to suction the baby's mouth and nose to ensure the infant can breathe properly. This helps clear any potential obstructions and establish a clear airway. Cutting the umbilical cord (Choice B) and wrapping the baby in a clean blanket (Choice D) are important steps but should come after ensuring the baby's airway is clear. Placing extra padding under the mother (Choice A) is not a priority in this emergency situation as the focus should be on the baby's immediate needs for breathing and airway clearance.

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