Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following foods present a problem for a client diagnosed with Celiac Disease?

• A. butter
• B. oats or barley cereal
• C. fresh vegetables
• D. coffee or tea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Celiac disease, also known as celiac sprue, is a malabsorption disorder affecting the small intestine due to a problem with ingesting gluten, a protein found in wheat, rye, oats, and barley. Therefore, oats or barley cereal would present a problem for a client with Celiac Disease as they contain gluten. Fresh vegetables, butter, coffee, and tea, on the other hand, do not contain gluten and should not pose any issues for individuals with this disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is oats or barley cereal. Choices A, C, and D are not problematic for clients with Celiac Disease as they are gluten-free.

2. A director of nursing at a long-term care center has announced a change to computerized documentation of nursing care. A certified nursing assistant (CNA) on the team, resistant to the change, is not taking an active part in facilitating the implementation of the new procedure. Which strategy would be the best approach to dealing with the conflict?

• A. Meeting with the CNA and encouraging him to express his feelings regarding the change
• B. Ignoring the resistance
• C. Telling the CNA that a licensed practical nurse (LPN) will perform all computer documentation while he documents intake and output and vital signs
• D. Telling the CNA that noncompliance will be documented in the personnel record

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best approach to dealing with resistance to change is through open communication and understanding. Meeting with the CNA and encouraging him to express his feelings regarding the change allows for a constructive dialogue where issues can be addressed, and alternative solutions can be explored. Ignoring the resistance does not help in resolving the conflict and may lead to further issues. Telling the CNA that a licensed practical nurse (LPN) will perform all computer documentation while he documents intake and output and vital signs does not address the underlying concerns of the CNA and may create more resistance. Threatening the CNA with noncompliance consequences may escalate the resistance and create a negative work environment.

3. Which of the following conditions has a severe complication of respiratory failure?

• A. Bell's palsy
• B. Guillain-Barr� syndrome
• C. Trigeminal neuralgia
• D. Tetanus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Guillain-Barr� syndrome is characterized by a severe complication of respiratory failure due to the involvement of the peripheral nerves that control breathing. While Bell's palsy, trigeminal neuralgia, and tetanus are also conditions affecting peripheral nerves, they do not typically lead to respiratory failure like Guillain-Barr� syndrome. Bell's palsy causes facial muscle weakness, trigeminal neuralgia results in severe facial pain, and tetanus leads to muscle stiffness and spasms, but none of these conditions directly involve respiratory failure.

4. Which hormone in the urine is specifically indicative of pregnancy?

• A. estrogen
• B. progesterone
• C. testosterone
• D. human chorionic gonadotropin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Human chorionic gonadotropin is the hormone specifically indicative of pregnancy as it is produced by the placenta after implantation. It can be detected in urine and blood samples to confirm pregnancy. Estrogen and progesterone play crucial roles in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy but are not specific indicators of pregnancy on their own. Testosterone is a hormone primarily associated with male reproductive functions and is not directly related to pregnancy, making it an incorrect choice in this context.

5. Priorities designated as intermediate by the nurse are:

• A. the nonemergency, non-life-threatening needs of the client.
• B. those tasks that can be delegated to assistive personnel.
• C. those tasks that can be performed at the end of the shift.
• D. those tasks that can be performed at any time

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Priorities designated as intermediate by the nurse are those that are not urgent but still important, such as the nonemergency, non-life-threatening needs of the client. They do not impact the client's immediate physiological status but require attention. Intermediate priorities may need the skill level of an RN for completion and may have specific time requirements. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the priority being intermediate doesn't mean it can be delegated, done at a specific time, or done at any time; it simply indicates a non-urgent but necessary task for the client's well-being.

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