Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a patient who is hard-of-hearing, which of the following steps may be appropriate when communicating with the patient?

• A. Divide the verbal communication into smaller sections and address one at a time.
• B. Communicate only with written information.
• C. Ask multiple questions in a row quickly to make sure the patient is remaining engaged.
• D. Frequently communicate without assistive devices to help the patient improve their hearing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When caring for a patient who is hard-of-hearing, it is important to divide verbal communication into smaller sections and address them one at a time. This approach helps the patient follow along more easily and understand the information being conveyed. While using written information can also be beneficial, solely relying on written communication may not always be practical or feasible for effective interaction. Asking multiple questions quickly can overwhelm the patient and hinder their ability to process each question adequately. It is essential to give the patient sufficient time to comprehend and respond. Additionally, frequently communicating without assistive devices is not recommended. Using assistive devices can significantly enhance the patient's ability to hear and understand, promoting better communication and patient care.

2. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to opiate overdose. Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist that can rapidly reverse the effects of opiates by competitively binding to opioid receptors and displacing the opiates. This action can restore normal respiration and consciousness. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a non-selective beta-blocker used to manage hypertension, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid overdose. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to manage psychotic disorders, not opioid toxicity.

3. At a health screening clinic, a nurse is educating a young woman about breast self-examination (BSE). The nurse determines that the client demonstrates understanding when she makes which statement?

• A. BSE should be performed monthly after the menstrual period.
• B. BSE is performed after the menstrual period.
• C. Monthly BSE is a recommended method for early detection of breast cancer.
• D. Monthly BSE includes inspection before a mirror and palpation both in the shower and while lying down.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Monthly BSE includes inspection before a mirror and palpation both in the shower and while lying down.' BSE should be performed monthly after the menstrual period, not every other month or on the day menstruation begins. Performing BSE on the seventh day of the menstrual cycle when the breasts are smallest and least congested is recommended. While BSE is a useful tool for early detection, it is not the only method. Regular physical examinations and mammograms are also important. The correct technique for BSE includes inspecting the breasts in front of a mirror, palpating in the shower for easier detection, and conducting palpation while lying down for thorough examination.

4. The client has an order for an IV piggyback of Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W to run over 30 minutes. What is the appropriate drip rate?

• A. 100 mL/hr
• B. 150 mL/hr
• C. 200 mL/hr
• D. 50 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, you need to convert the time from minutes to hours. The formula is (Volume to be infused / Time for infusion in minutes) x (60 minutes / 1 hour). Substituting the values, (50 mL / 30 min) x (60 min / 1 hr) = 100 mL/hr. Therefore, the appropriate drip rate is 100 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drip rate. Option A, 100 mL/hr, is the correct drip rate for administering Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W over 30 minutes.

5. Nurses caring for clients who have cancer and are taking opioids need to assess for all of the following except:

• A. tolerance.
• B. constipation.
• C. sedation.
• D. addiction.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'addiction.' When caring for clients with cancer who are taking opioids, nurses need to assess for tolerance, constipation, and sedation as these are common side effects of opioid use. Addiction is not a primary concern when managing pain in terminally ill clients, as the goal is effective pain management rather than addiction prevention. Tolerance refers to the body's adaptation to the opioid over time, requiring higher doses for the same effect. Constipation and sedation are common side effects of opioids that nurses need to monitor and manage. Addiction is not a major concern in this population as the focus is on providing comfort and pain relief.

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