Nursing Elites

1. When a nurse asks a client to repeat the word 'ninety-nine' while listening through the stethoscope and is able to hear the word clearly, which assessment finding is being documented?

• A. Normal egophony
• B. Abnormal vesicular breath sounds
• C. Abnormal bronchophony
• D. Normal whispered pectoriloquy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse is documenting an abnormal bronchophony assessment finding. Bronchophony is a technique where the nurse asks the client to repeat a specific word, such as 'ninety-nine,' while listening through the stethoscope. Normally, the voice transmission is soft, muffled, and indistinct. However, if there is a pathologic condition increasing lung density, the nurse will hear the word clearly, indicating an abnormality. Vesicular breath sounds are normal sounds heard over peripheral lung fields and are not related to vocal resonance assessment. Egophony involves the client phonating a long 'ee-ee-ee-ee' sound, not repeating a specific word. Whispered pectoriloquy involves whispering a phrase like 'one-two-three,' not repeating a specific word. In these cases, normal findings are 'eeeeee' for egophony and a muffled, almost inaudible sound for whispered pectoriloquy.

2. A nurse is supervising a student in preparing the physical environment for an interview with a client. Which action by the student is correct?

• A. Setting the room temperature at a comfortable level
• B. Placing a chair for the client across from the nurse's desk
• C. Providing seating for the client so that the client faces a strong light
• D. Setting up seating so that the client and nurse are not at eye level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing the physical environment for an interview with a client, it is crucial to ensure the client's comfort. Setting the room temperature at a comfortable level is essential for the client's well-being. Additionally, providing privacy, sufficient lighting, and removing distractions are crucial factors. It is recommended to maintain a distance of around 4 to 5 feet between the client and the nurse. Seating should be arranged so that the client and nurse are at eye level to facilitate effective communication and prevent barriers. Placing a chair across from the nurse's desk may create a physical barrier, positioning the client to face a strong light can be uncomfortable and distracting, and setting up seating so that the client and nurse are not at eye level may impede effective communication.

3. The nurse is observing a client self-administer two crushable medications through their G-tube. Which of the following would indicate a need for further instruction?

• A. The client flushes the G-tube before administering the medications, in between the two medications, and after the medications.
• B. The client states they will remain in the Semi-Fowler's position for 30 minutes following the administration of the medications.
• C. The client mixes each medication separately in warm water.
• D. The client mixes their medications with their tube-feeding formula.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that the client mixes their medications with their tube-feeding formula. Medications should not be mixed with tube-feeding formula or other medications as it may alter their effectiveness. The G-tube should be flushed before, between, and after the medications to prevent clogging and ensure proper administration. The client should remain in the Semi-Fowler's position for at least 30 minutes after medication administration to prevent reflux. Choice B is correct as it aligns with the proper post-administration positioning. Choices A and C are incorrect as flushing the G-tube before, between, and after medications, and mixing each medication separately in warm water are appropriate procedures that do not indicate a need for further instruction.

4. When teaching parents how their children learn sex role identification, the nurse should include which of the following statements?

• A. Sex role identification begins in infancy.
• B. Sex role identification begins in the preschool years.
• C. Sex role identification begins during the school-age years.
• D. Sex role identification begins during early adolescence.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Sex role identification begins during infancy as infants can identify body parts by the end of the first year. Preschoolers often engage in masturbation and sex play. School-age children continue to develop awareness of their sexual identity, including behaviors like hugging and kissing. Early adolescence sees further development influenced by sexual maturation and experimentation with sex roles. Therefore, the correct statement is that sex role identification begins in infancy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they misrepresent the timeline of the development of sex role identification in children.

5. When a couple experiencing infertility presents for a fertility workup, which of the following procedures should the nurse prepare the couple to have first?

• A. Hysterosalpingography
• B. Semen analysis
• C. Endometrial biopsy
• D. Transvaginal ultrasound

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Semen analysis is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for a couple experiencing infertility. It is the least invasive of the listed tests, and since male factor infertility contributes to around 35% of cases, assessing semen parameters early is crucial. Hysterosalpingography is a radiographic test to evaluate tubal patency and uterine cavity abnormalities. Endometrial biopsy assesses endometrial receptivity post-ovulation. Transvaginal ultrasound is mainly used in infertility treatment to monitor follicle development, oocyte maturity, and luteal phase defects. Choices A, C, and D are more invasive, require specialized expertise, and are costlier. If semen analysis yields normal results, further tests may be warranted.

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