NCLEX-PN
Best NCLEX Next Gen Prep
1. Why is Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness significant?
- A. it explains the health beliefs a family is likely to have.
- B. it emphasizes the role of culture in shaping health explanations.
- C. it discusses the significant role of popular and folk domains of influence.
- D. it is structured based on education.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness is significant because it emphasizes the crucial role that popular and folk domains of influence play in shaping individuals' understanding of health and illness. Kleinman distinguishes between disease, which is the biomedical understanding of health problems, and illness, which is the individual's personal interpretation of their health condition. By focusing on the cultural factors that influence these domains of influence, Kleinman's model underscores the impact of cultural beliefs and practices on health perceptions. Choice A is incorrect because the model goes beyond just family health beliefs. Choice B is more precise as it emphasizes the broader influence of culture. Choice C highlights the correct significance of popular and folk domains of influence, making it the correct choice. Choice D is incorrect as the model's significance lies in cultural domains, not educational structure.
2. The client has an order for an IV piggyback of Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W to run over 30 minutes. What is the appropriate drip rate?
- A. 100 mL/hr
- B. 150 mL/hr
- C. 200 mL/hr
- D. 50 mL/hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, you need to convert the time from minutes to hours. The formula is (Volume to be infused / Time for infusion in minutes) x (60 minutes / 1 hour). Substituting the values, (50 mL / 30 min) x (60 min / 1 hr) = 100 mL/hr. Therefore, the appropriate drip rate is 100 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drip rate. Option A, 100 mL/hr, is the correct drip rate for administering Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W over 30 minutes.
3. After delivering a healthy newborn 1 hour ago, a nurse notes a woman's radial pulse rate is 55 beats/min. What action should the nurse take based on this finding?
- A. Reporting the finding to the healthcare provider immediately
- B. Helping the woman stay in bed and rest
- C. Documenting the finding
- D. Performing active and passive range-of-motion exercises
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After delivery, bradycardia (pulse rate 50-70 beats/min) may occur, reflecting the large amount of blood returning to the central circulation after delivery of the placenta. The increase in central circulation results in increased stroke volume, allowing a slower heart rate to provide adequate maternal circulation. A pulse rate of 55 beats/min falls within the normal range post-delivery, so there is no need to notify the healthcare provider immediately. It is important for the client to remain on bed rest in the immediate postpartum period to prevent complications. While range-of-motion exercises are beneficial for a client on bed rest, it is not the priority based on the data provided. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing action is to document the finding for accurate record-keeping and monitoring of the client's condition.
4. While assisting with data collection regarding the neurological system, the nurse asks the client to puff out both cheeks. Which cranial nerve is the nurse assessing?
- A. Vagus
- B. Facial
- C. Abducens
- D. Oculomotor
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Facial. Assessment of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) involves noting mobility and symmetry as the client performs various facial movements, including puffing out the cheeks. Cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and cranial nerve X (vagus nerve) are tested together for different functions. The abducens, oculomotor, and trochlear nerves are assessed together for eye movements and pupil reactions, not cheek puffing.
5. A nurse assisting with data collection plans to perform the Romberg test. After describing the test to the client, the nurse tells the client that it will help reveal which disorder?
- A. Loss of hearing acuity
- B. A problem with balance
- C. A problem with distant hearing
- D. A problem discriminating high-pitched and low-pitched sounds
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The Romberg test is a balance assessment that evaluates cerebellar function. During the test, the client stands with feet together and eyes closed, aiming to maintain balance for about 20 seconds. This test helps identify issues related to balance and proprioception, not hearing acuity or sound discrimination. Choices C and D are incorrect as the Romberg test focuses on balance, not distant hearing or sound discrimination.
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