NCLEX NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX Questions
1. When preparing to listen to a client’s breath sounds, what technique should a nurse use?
- A. Ask the client to sit and lean forward slightly, with the arms resting comfortably across the lap.
- B. Listen to the right lung first, then the left lung, moving from top to bottom systematically.
- C. Ask the client to take deep breaths through the mouth.
- D. Use the diaphragm of the stethoscope, holding it firmly against the client’s chest.
Correct answer: D: Use the diaphragm of the stethoscope, holding it firmly against the client’s chest.
Rationale: When preparing to listen to a client's breath sounds, a nurse should ask the client to sit and lean forward slightly, with the arms resting comfortably across the lap. The client should be instructed to breathe through the mouth a little more deeply than usual but to stop if feeling dizzy. The nurse should use the flat diaphragm end-piece of the stethoscope, holding it firmly on the chest wall. By using the diaphragm, the nurse can listen for at least one full respiration in each location, moving from side to side to compare sounds. This technique ensures a systematic and thorough assessment of lung sounds. Choice A is correct as it includes the proper positioning of the client and specifies the use of the diaphragm of the stethoscope. Choice B is incorrect as both lungs should be auscultated systematically, starting from the top and moving down. Choice C is incorrect as deep breaths, not shallow ones, are recommended for an accurate assessment of breath sounds.
2. Which of the following solutions is routinely used to flush an IV device before and after the administration of blood to a client?
- A. 0.9% sodium chloride
- B. 5% dextrose in water solution
- C. Sterile water
- D. Heparin sodium
Correct answer: 0.9% sodium chloride
Rationale: The correct answer is 0.9% sodium chloride. Normal saline is 0.9% sodium chloride, which has the same osmolarity as blood and does not cause cell lysis. Choices 2 and 3, 5% dextrose in water solution and sterile water, are hypotonic solutions that can lead to cell lysis. Choice 4, heparin sodium, is an anticoagulant and is not used for flushing IV devices before and after blood administration.
3. How far should the enema tube be inserted for a client to have a flatus-reducing enema?
- A. 4 inches.
- B. 6 inches.
- C. 2 inches.
- D. 8 inches.
Correct answer: 4 inches.
Rationale: The correct answer is to insert the enema tube 4 inches. Enema tubing must be passed beyond the internal sphincter, which is typically around 4 inches in an adult. Inserting the tube only 2 inches is not far enough to reach this point. On the other hand, inserting the tube 6 or 8 inches is too far and might cause trauma to the bowel, which is unnecessary for a flatus-reducing enema. Therefore, the correct insertion depth of the enema tube is crucial to ensure effectiveness and safety in providing the intended treatment.
4. A patient asks a nurse the following question: Exposure to TB can be best identified with which of the following procedures?
- A. Chest x-ray
- B. Mantoux test
- C. Breath sounds examination
- D. Sputum culture for Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The Mantoux test, also known as the tuberculin skin test, is the most appropriate and accurate test to identify exposure to TB. This test involves injecting a small amount of PPD tuberculin under the top layer of the skin, and a positive reaction indicates exposure to the TB bacteria. Choice A, a chest x-ray, is useful for detecting active TB disease but not exposure. Choice C, a breath sounds examination, is not a specific test for TB exposure. Choice D, a sputum culture for Mycobacterium tuberculosis, is used to diagnose active TB infection rather than exposure.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with an elevated urine osmolarity. The nurse should assess the client for:
- A. fluid volume excess.
- B. hyperkalemia.
- C. hypercalcemia.
- D. fluid volume deficit.
Correct answer: fluid volume deficit.
Rationale: Elevated urine osmolarity indicates that the urine is concentrated, suggesting the body is trying to conserve water. This commonly occurs in conditions like dehydration or fluid volume deficit. Assessing the client for fluid volume excess, hyperkalemia, or hypercalcemia would not be the priority in this situation. Therefore, the correct answer is to assess the client for fluid volume deficit. Fluid volume excess is characterized by decreased urine osmolarity, while hyperkalemia and hypercalcemia are related to electrolyte imbalances and would not directly cause elevated urine osmolarity.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX Basic
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
NCLEX Basic
- 5,000 Questions and answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX Coverage
- 90 days access @ $69.99