Nursing Elites

1. When a client wishes to improve her appearance by removing excess skin from her face and neck, the nurse should provide teaching regarding which of the following procedures?

• A. dermabrasion
• B. rhinoplasty
• C. blepharoplasty
• D. rhytidectomy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'rhytidectomy.' Rhytidectomy, commonly known as a face-lift, is the procedure for removing excess skin from the face and neck. Dermabrasion involves spraying a chemical to freeze the skin lightly, followed by abrasion with sandpaper or a revolving wire brush, used for removing scars, severe acne, and tattoo pigment. Rhinoplasty is for improving the nose's appearance by reshaping the nasal skeleton and overlying skin. Blepharoplasty removes loose and protruding fat from the upper and lower eyelids. Therefore, when a client wants to address excess skin in the face and neck, rhytidectomy is the appropriate procedure.

2. During a throat assessment, a healthcare provider asks a client to stick out their tongue and notices it protrudes in the midline. Which cranial nerve is being tested?

• A. Cranial nerve X
• B. Cranial nerve V
• C. Cranial nerve IX
• D. Cranial nerve XII

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve). When testing cranial nerve XII, the healthcare provider inspects the symmetry and movement of the tongue. The tongue should protrude in the midline when the client sticks it out. Cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve) are tested by depressing the tongue with a blade to observe pharyngeal movement and gag reflex. Cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve) is responsible for testing the muscles of mastication, not tongue protrusion.

3. The nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia related to a stroke. The nurse works with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration. What is this an example of?

• A. Health promotion
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Primary prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse working with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention to prevent complications or worsening of a condition. In this case, the nurse is helping to prevent aspiration pneumonia by providing education and guidance on safe eating and drinking practices after the client has already experienced dysphagia due to a stroke. Choice A, health promotion, focuses on empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to improve overall well-being and prevent illness. It is more about promoting general health rather than specific interventions related to a particular condition like dysphagia. Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and rehabilitating a condition to prevent further complications or disabilities. In this scenario, the nurse is not yet addressing complications but rather actively preventing them. Choice D, primary prevention, aims to prevent the onset of a disease or condition before it occurs. The client in this case already has dysphagia, so the focus is on preventing further complications, making it a secondary prevention intervention.

4. As part of a routine health screening, the nurse notes the play of a 2-year-old child. Which of the following is an example of age-appropriate play at this age?

• A. builds towers with several blocks
• B. tries to color within the lines
• C. says "Mine!"? when playing with toys
• D. tries to jump rope

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a 2-year-old child, saying 'Mine!' when playing with toys is an example of age-appropriate play. Toddlers at this age are possessive and asserting their sense of ownership. Building towers with blocks and trying to color within the lines involve more advanced motor skills and cognitive abilities that are typically not fully developed in a 2-year-old. Jumping rope requires coordination and balance beyond what a 2-year-old can usually achieve. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are not considered age-appropriate plays for a 2-year-old child.

5. A client has just returned from surgery where a femoral-popliteal bypass was performed. The nurse has assessed the client and is unable to feel a pulse at either the dorsalis pedis or the posterior tibial sites of the left foot. The foot feels warm, and the color is pink. What action should the nurse perform next to prevent ischemia?

• A. Notify the physician immediately
• B. Obtain a Doppler device to check for pulses, and notify the physician if they are still absent
• C. Wait 30 minutes and recheck the pulses
• D. Document the finding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should immediately obtain a Doppler device and recheck the pulses. The dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses can be difficult to assess and might need to be verified with a Doppler device. Since the client just had surgery with a risk of arterial insufficiency, close monitoring is crucial. If pulses are not palpable, it indicates an emergent situation requiring immediate physician notification. Waiting 30 minutes before reassessment could lead to foot ischemia. While documenting findings is essential, it should follow pulse confirmation or necessary interventions to ensure the client's foot viability.

Similar Questions