Nursing Elites

1. When a client wishes to improve her appearance by removing excess skin from her face and neck, the nurse should provide teaching regarding which of the following procedures?

• A. dermabrasion
• B. rhinoplasty
• C. blepharoplasty
• D. rhytidectomy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'rhytidectomy.' Rhytidectomy, commonly known as a face-lift, is the procedure for removing excess skin from the face and neck. Dermabrasion involves spraying a chemical to freeze the skin lightly, followed by abrasion with sandpaper or a revolving wire brush, used for removing scars, severe acne, and tattoo pigment. Rhinoplasty is for improving the nose's appearance by reshaping the nasal skeleton and overlying skin. Blepharoplasty removes loose and protruding fat from the upper and lower eyelids. Therefore, when a client wants to address excess skin in the face and neck, rhytidectomy is the appropriate procedure.

2. Central venous access devices (CVADs) are frequently utilized to administer chemotherapy. What is an advantage of using CVADs for chemotherapeutic agent administration?

• A. CVADs are more expensive than a peripheral IV.
• B. Weekly administration is possible.
• C. Chemotherapeutic agents can be caustic to smaller veins.
• D. The client or family can administer the drug at home.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct advantage of using CVADs for chemotherapeutic agent administration is that chemotherapeutic agents can be caustic to smaller veins. Many chemotherapeutic drugs are vesicants, which can cause tissue damage even in low concentrations. Using a CVAD to administer these agents into a large vein is optimal as it reduces the risk of damage. Choice A is incorrect as CVADs are actually more expensive than a peripheral IV, making it a disadvantage. Choice B is incorrect because the frequency of administration depends on the specific drug being administered, not on the access device, so it does not represent a universal advantage. Choice D is incorrect because IV chemotherapeutic agents are typically not self-administered at home; they are usually given in a hospital, outpatient, or clinic setting, making it an invalid advantage of using CVADs.

3. A nurse sees documentation in the client's record indicating that the health care provider has noted the presence of adventitious breath sounds. The nurse knows that these types of sounds have which aspect?

• A. Normally heard in the lungs
• B. Hollow sounds heard over the trachea and larynx
• C. Rustling sounds heard over the peripheral lung fields
• D. Abnormal sounds that should not be heard in the lungs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Adventitious breath sounds are abnormal sounds that are not normally heard in the lungs. These sounds are added sounds superimposed on the breath sounds. They are caused by air colliding with secretions in the tracheobronchial passageways or when previously deflated airways pop open. Hollow sounds heard over the trachea and larynx are normal bronchial (tracheal) breath sounds, not adventitious. Rustling sounds heard over the peripheral lung fields are normal vesicular breath sounds, not adventitious. Therefore, the correct answer is that adventitious breath sounds are abnormal sounds that should not be heard in the lungs.

4. The LPN is taking care of a client who is on Phenelzine (Nardil) for depression. Which meal would the nurse encourage the client to avoid?

• A. steak and potatoes
• B. prosciutto and cheese plate
• C. orange juice and toast
• D. carbonated water, shrimp and rice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'prosciutto and cheese plate.' Phenelzine (Nardil) is an MAOI (Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor), and clients on these drugs should avoid foods high in tyramine due to the risk of dangerous elevations in blood pressure. Prosciutto and aged cheeses are examples of foods rich in tyramine, so they should be avoided. Choices A, C, and D do not contain high levels of tyramine and are considered safe to consume while on Phenelzine.

5. A nurse is telling a pregnant client about the signs that must be reported to the health care provider. The nurse tells the client that the health care provider should be contacted if which occurs?

• A. Puffiness of the face
• B. Breast tenderness
• C. Morning sickness
• D. Urinary frequency

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During pregnancy, it is important to be aware of danger signs that warrant contacting the healthcare provider. Puffiness of the face, especially around the eyes, can indicate a serious condition like preeclampsia. Other danger signs include vaginal bleeding, rupture of membranes, severe abdominal pain, visual disturbances, persistent vomiting, and changes in fetal movements. Morning sickness, breast tenderness, and urinary frequency are common symptoms of pregnancy and are not typically concerning unless they become severe or persistent, and do not usually require immediate medical attention.

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