Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to assess the fetal heart rate (FHR) of a client who is 14 weeks pregnant. Which piece of equipment does the nurse use to assess the FHR?

• A. Stethoscope
• B. Doppler transducer
• C. Fetoscope
• D. Pulse oximetry on the client and a fetoscope

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To assess the fetal heart rate of a client who is 14 weeks pregnant, the nurse should use a Doppler transducer. Fetal heart sounds can be heard with a fetoscope by 20 weeks of gestation. The Doppler transducer amplifies fetal heart sounds so that they are audible by 10 to 12 weeks of gestation, making it the most appropriate choice for this scenario. Fetal heart sounds cannot be heard with a stethoscope. Pulse oximetry is not used to auscultate fetal heart sounds, so it is an incorrect choice in this context.

2. When reviewing a client's medical notes to confirm pregnancy, a nurse should look for which finding to determine that pregnancy is confirmed?

• A. Amenorrhea
• B. Thinning of the cervix
• C. Palpable fetal movement
• D. Positive result on a home urine test for pregnancy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To confirm pregnancy, the presence of palpable fetal movement is a positive indicator. Palpable fetal movement is a certain sign of pregnancy, known as a fetal movement felt by the examiner. Amenorrhea is a presumptive sign of pregnancy as it is reported by the woman but is not confirmatory. Thinning of the cervix (Hegar sign) is a probable sign of pregnancy, which is not confirmatory. A positive result on a home urine test for pregnancy is also a probable indicator. However, a positive pregnancy test result can sometimes yield false-positive results due to various factors like medication, recent pregnancy, or errors in reading.

3. An allergic reaction is classified as what type of pharmacological effect?

• A. a therapeutic effect
• B. a side effect
• C. an adverse effect
• D. an incompatibility

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An allergic reaction is classified as an adverse effect because it is an unintended response to a medication that requires treatment. A side effect is an undesired but somewhat expected reaction to a drug that does not necessarily need intervention. Incompatibility refers to an unsuitable combination of substances that leads to an adverse effect. A therapeutic effect is the desired and intended outcome of a medication.

4. The client has an order for 0.45 mg of Diltiazem. The medication vial has a concentration of 3 mg/mL. How many mL of the drug should be administered?

• A. 0.15 mL
• B. 6.6 mL
• C. 1.5 mL
• D. 0.65 Ml

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the amount of drug to be administered, divide the ordered dose by the concentration of the medication in the vial. In this case, 0.45 mg ÷ 3 mg/mL = 0.15 mL. Therefore, the correct answer is 0.15 mL. Choice B (6.6 mL) is incorrect as it does not result from the correct calculation. Choice C (1.5 mL) is incorrect as it is not the result of dividing the ordered dose by the concentration. Choice D (0.65 mL) is incorrect as it is not the accurate calculation based on the provided information.

5. A multigravida pregnant woman asks the nurse when she will start to feel fetal movements. Around which week of gestation does the nurse tell the mother that fetal movements are first noticed?

• A. 16 weeks
• B. 6 weeks
• C. 8 weeks
• D. 12 weeks

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fetal movements (quickening) are first noticed by multigravida pregnant women at 16 to 20 weeks of gestation and gradually increase in frequency and strength. This is when the mother typically begins to feel the baby's movements. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because fetal movements are not felt as early as 6, 8, or 12 weeks of gestation. At 6 weeks, the embryo's movements are not yet strong enough to be felt by the mother. By 8 weeks, the movements are still too subtle to be perceived. At 12 weeks, although fetal movements start, they are usually not strong enough to be felt by the mother.

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