NCLEX-PN
2024 PN NCLEX Questions
1. Quality is defined as a combination of all of the following except:
- A. conforming to standards.
- B. performing at the minimally acceptable level.
- C. meeting or exceeding customer requirements.
- D. exceeding customer expectations.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'performing at the minimally acceptable level.' Quality is about meeting or exceeding customer requirements and expectations, as well as conforming to standards. The term 'performing at the minimally acceptable level' implies just meeting the minimum requirements, which falls short of the comprehensive definition of quality in terms of customer satisfaction and excellence. Therefore, this choice is the exception when defining quality. Choices A, C, and D align with the definition of quality as they all involve meeting or surpassing certain criteria for customer satisfaction and product excellence, which are essential components of quality management.
2. A nurse notes that a client's physical examination record states that the client's eyes moved normally through the six cardinal fields of gaze. The nurse interprets this to mean that which aspect of eye function is normal?
- A. Near vision
- B. Central vision
- C. Peripheral vision
- D. Ocular movements
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Ocular movements.' Moving the eyes through the six cardinal fields of gaze evaluates the function of the eye muscles, such as the medial rectus muscle, superior rectus muscle, superior oblique muscle, lateral rectus muscle, inferior rectus muscle, and inferior oblique muscle. Normal movement in these fields indicates proper ocular movements. Near vision is assessed using a handheld vision screener, central vision with a Snellen chart, and peripheral vision through the confrontation test. Therefore, the evaluation of ocular movements through the six cardinal fields of gaze specifically assesses this aspect of eye function. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they pertain to different aspects of vision function that are evaluated using distinct assessment methods, not through the six cardinal fields of gaze.
3. A nurse assisting with data collection is testing the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve (cranial nerve VIII). Which action does the nurse take to test this nerve?
- A. Asking the client to raise their eyebrows and looking for symmetry
- B. Asking the client to clench the teeth, then palpating the masseter muscles just above the mandibular angle
- C. Asking the client to close the eyes and then identify light and sharp touch with a cotton ball and a pin on both sides of the face
- D. Asking the client to close their eyes and then indicate when a ticking watch is heard as the nurse brings the watch closer to the client's ear
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To test the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve (cranial nerve VIII), the nurse should have the client close their eyes and indicate when a ticking watch is heard as the nurse moves the watch closer to the client's ear. This action assesses the client's ability to perceive auditory stimuli, as the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve is responsible for hearing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Asking the client to raise their eyebrows to check for symmetry is a method to test the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII). Asking the client to clench their teeth and palpating the masseter muscles tests the motor component of the trigeminal nerve. Having the client identify light and sharp touch on both sides of the face is a way to test the sensory component of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V).
4. The nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia related to a stroke. The nurse works with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration. What is this an example of?
- A. Health promotion
- B. Secondary prevention
- C. Tertiary prevention
- D. Primary prevention
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse working with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention to prevent complications or worsening of a condition. In this case, the nurse is helping to prevent aspiration pneumonia by providing education and guidance on safe eating and drinking practices after the client has already experienced dysphagia due to a stroke. Choice A, health promotion, focuses on empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to improve overall well-being and prevent illness. It is more about promoting general health rather than specific interventions related to a particular condition like dysphagia. Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and rehabilitating a condition to prevent further complications or disabilities. In this scenario, the nurse is not yet addressing complications but rather actively preventing them. Choice D, primary prevention, aims to prevent the onset of a disease or condition before it occurs. The client in this case already has dysphagia, so the focus is on preventing further complications, making it a secondary prevention intervention.
5. A mother brings her 1-year-old child to the clinic. The child has no record of previous immunizations, and the mother confirms the child has not been immunized. Teaching by the nurse should include which of the following?
- A. Immunizations may be started at any age.
- B. The recommended immunization schedule should be followed.
- C. If a primary series of immunizations is interrupted, it can be continued.
- D. Delaying the start of vaccines does not increase the risk of reaction.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Immunizations may be started at any age.' While there is a recommended immunization schedule, immunizations can be initiated at any age. It is essential to emphasize the flexibility in starting immunizations. The statement 'The recommended immunization schedule should be followed' is too rigid; while recommended, there is flexibility in initiation. Choice C is correct as an interrupted series can be continued without restarting. The statement 'Delaying the start of vaccines does not increase the risk of reaction' is correct. Delaying does not increase the risk of reaction; in fact, it is important to start immunizations to protect the child and the community.
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