Nursing Elites

1. During a report from an ER nurse about a client, the nurse identifies a statement that requires additional follow-up. Which of the following statements needs further clarification?

• A. "The client said they have been taking aspirin, but I'm not sure for how long or how much."?
• B. "The client frequently takes antacids, but they have not taken any in the last three days."?
• C. "The client stopped taking ibuprofen after developing gastric ulcers."?
• D. "The client takes Antabuse and has stopped using mouthwash."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer requires further follow-up as the nurse needs to know the duration and dosage of aspirin since it can impact the patient's bleeding risk. Choice B does not require immediate follow-up as not taking antacids for three days is not critical. Choice C indicates a necessary decision made by the client to stop ibuprofen after developing gastric ulcers, hence no immediate follow-up is needed. Choice D provides important information, but the priority is to address the lack of specificity regarding the client's aspirin use, which is crucial for assessing bleeding risk and potential interactions.

2. A nurse is participating in a planning conference to improve dietary measures for an older client experiencing dysphagia. Which action should the nurse suggest including in the plan of care?

• A. Monitoring the client during meals to ensure that food is swallowed
• B. Encouraging the client to feed themselves
• C. Consulting with the physician regarding feeding through an enteral tube
• D. Ensuring that the diet consists of both solids and liquids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For clients with dysphagia, ensuring successful swallowing of food and preventing aspiration is crucial. Therefore, the nurse should suggest monitoring the client closely during meals to provide assistance as needed. While a balanced diet is important, special considerations like adding thickeners for liquids may be required for dysphagia clients. Consulting with a physician about enteral tube feeding should be based on the severity of the condition, making it a premature step without clear indications. Encouraging self-feeding may not be appropriate for dysphagia clients who require close monitoring and assistance, as it could increase the risk of complications.

3. The LPN is taking care of a 176-pound client who has recently been diagnosed with diabetes. The primary healthcare provider has written an order for Lantus� (insulin glargine injection) 100 units/mL, using weight-based dosing of 0.2 units/kg per day. The LPN should prepare ____ units for administration.

• A. 12
• B. 35
• C. 16
• D. 9

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct dosage, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms. As 1 kg = 2.2 pounds, 176 pounds � 2.2 = 80 kg. The client should receive 0.2 units for every kilogram, which equals 16 units. Therefore, the total amount to prepare is 16 units x 100 units/mL = 1600 units. Considering the medication concentration of 100 units/mL, 1600 units � 100 units/mL = 16 mL. However, since the question asks for the number of units, the final answer is 16 units x 2 injections = 32 units. Therefore, the LPN should prepare 32 units for administration.

4. When a couple experiencing infertility presents for a fertility workup, which of the following procedures should the nurse prepare the couple to have first?

• A. Hysterosalpingography
• B. Semen analysis
• C. Endometrial biopsy
• D. Transvaginal ultrasound

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Semen analysis is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for a couple experiencing infertility. It is the least invasive of the listed tests, and since male factor infertility contributes to around 35% of cases, assessing semen parameters early is crucial. Hysterosalpingography is a radiographic test to evaluate tubal patency and uterine cavity abnormalities. Endometrial biopsy assesses endometrial receptivity post-ovulation. Transvaginal ultrasound is mainly used in infertility treatment to monitor follicle development, oocyte maturity, and luteal phase defects. Choices A, C, and D are more invasive, require specialized expertise, and are costlier. If semen analysis yields normal results, further tests may be warranted.

5. The teaching plan for a postpartum client who is about to be discharged should include which of the following instructions?

• A. "It is normal for your breasts to be tender. You should call the physician if you also have redness and fatigue."?
• B. "Because your baby was delivered vaginally, you might have to urinate more frequently."?
• C. "It is normal to run a low-grade temperature for a few days. If it is higher than 100�F, call your physician."?
• D. "Be sure to call your physician if your vaginal discharge becomes bright red."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the postpartum client to call the physician if their vaginal discharge becomes bright red. The vaginal discharge after birth is called lochia, and a return to red or containing clots could indicate impending hemorrhage or infection, necessitating notification of the physician. Choice A is incorrect because although some tenderness may be expected, redness and fatigue are clinical manifestations of mastitis, not normal postpartum changes. Choice B is also incorrect as increased frequency of urination after vaginal delivery could indicate a urinary tract infection, not a normal postpartum change. Choice C is incorrect because running a low-grade temperature for a few days is not expected postpartum; an elevated temperature above 100�F should be reported to the physician as it could indicate infection.

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