Nursing Elites

1. During a report from an ER nurse about a client, the nurse identifies a statement that requires additional follow-up. Which of the following statements needs further clarification?

• A. "The client said they have been taking aspirin, but I'm not sure for how long or how much."?
• B. "The client frequently takes antacids, but they have not taken any in the last three days."?
• C. "The client stopped taking ibuprofen after developing gastric ulcers."?
• D. "The client takes Antabuse and has stopped using mouthwash."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer requires further follow-up as the nurse needs to know the duration and dosage of aspirin since it can impact the patient's bleeding risk. Choice B does not require immediate follow-up as not taking antacids for three days is not critical. Choice C indicates a necessary decision made by the client to stop ibuprofen after developing gastric ulcers, hence no immediate follow-up is needed. Choice D provides important information, but the priority is to address the lack of specificity regarding the client's aspirin use, which is crucial for assessing bleeding risk and potential interactions.

2. When a couple experiencing infertility presents for a fertility workup, which of the following procedures should the nurse prepare the couple to have first?

• A. Hysterosalpingography
• B. Semen analysis
• C. Endometrial biopsy
• D. Transvaginal ultrasound

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Semen analysis is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for a couple experiencing infertility. It is the least invasive of the listed tests, and since male factor infertility contributes to around 35% of cases, assessing semen parameters early is crucial. Hysterosalpingography is a radiographic test to evaluate tubal patency and uterine cavity abnormalities. Endometrial biopsy assesses endometrial receptivity post-ovulation. Transvaginal ultrasound is mainly used in infertility treatment to monitor follicle development, oocyte maturity, and luteal phase defects. Choices A, C, and D are more invasive, require specialized expertise, and are costlier. If semen analysis yields normal results, further tests may be warranted.

3. A client who is immobilized secondary to traction is complaining of constipation. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to be ordered?

• A. Advil
• B. Anasaid
• C. Clinocil
• D. Colace

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Colace. Colace is a stool softener that helps relieve constipation by drawing more water into the bowel, making the stool softer and easier to pass. This is beneficial for an immobilized client as it can help prevent constipation due to decreased mobility. Options A, B, and C (Advil, Anasaid, Clinocil) are not indicated for constipation relief. Advil and Anasaid are nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs used for pain relief, while Clinocil is a fictional medication.

4. A client with Kawasaki disease has bilateral congestion of the conjunctivae, dry cracked lips, a strawberry tongue, and edema of the hands and feet followed by desquamation of fingers and toes. Which of the following nursing measures is most appropriate to meet the expected outcome of positive body image?

• A. administering immune globulin intravenously
• B. assessing the extremities for edema, redness, and desquamation every 8 hours
• C. explaining progression of the disease to the client and their family
• D. assessing heart sounds and rhythm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Educating the client and their family about the progression of Kawasaki disease is crucial for promoting a positive body image. By explaining when symptoms are expected to improve and resolve, the client and family can better understand that there will be no permanent disruption in physical appearance that could negatively impact body image. Administering immune globulin intravenously is a treatment for Kawasaki disease but does not directly address body image concerns. Assessing the extremities for edema, redness, and desquamation every 8 hours is important for monitoring the disease but does not directly address body image concerns. Assessing heart sounds and rhythm is essential for evaluating cardiac effects of Kawasaki disease but is not the most direct measure for promoting a positive body image.

5. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?

• A. Clozapine
• B. Fluoxetine
• C. Ondansetron
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.

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