a nurse is preparing to assess a client for the presence of the tinel sign which action does the nurse take to elicit this sign
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX Questions

1. A nurse is preparing to assess a client for the presence of the Tinel sign. Which action does the nurse take to elicit this sign?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Tinel sign is elicited by percussing at the location of the median nerve at the wrist. In carpal tunnel syndrome, this test can produce burning and tingling along the nerve's distribution. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Testing for the strength of each muscle joint and checking for repetitive movements in the joints involve different assessments unrelated to the Tinel sign. Asking the client to flex the wrist 90 degrees while holding the hands back to back is associated with the Phalen test, which is another evaluation for carpal tunnel syndrome.

2. A nurse assisting with data collection notes that the client's skin is very dry. The nurse documents this finding using which term?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dry skin is also called xerosis. In this condition, the epidermis lacks moisture or sebum and is often marked by a pattern of fine lines, scaling, and itching. Xerosis is the correct term for very dry skin. Pruritus is the symptom of itching, an uncomfortable sensation that prompts the urge to scratch the skin, but it does not specifically refer to dry skin. Seborrhea is a skin condition characterized by overproduction of sebum, leading to excessive oiliness or dry scales, not necessarily indicating very dry skin. Actinic keratoses are sun-related skin lesions that are premalignant and not associated with dry skin.

3. Which of the following is an example of an extended care facility?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An extended care facility typically provides long-term care for individuals who require continuous assistance with activities of daily living. A nursing facility fits this description as it offers skilled nursing care and assistance with daily activities. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a home health agency provides care in the patient's home, a suicide prevention center focuses on mental health crisis intervention, and a state-owned psychiatric hospital offers mental health treatment, none of which are synonymous with extended care facilities.

4. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.

5. During the health screening of an adolescent, which finding by the nurse requires further teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The client states she is currently taking birth control pills.' This finding requires further teaching because being on birth control pills does not protect against sexually transmitted diseases (STDs), and the adolescent should be educated on the importance of using barrier methods (e.g., condoms) for STD prevention. Choices A, C, and D are not concerning. Choice A is a normal developmental milestone in adolescence. Choice C could indicate a positive lifestyle change, and choice D is a common complaint during this stage of development.

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