NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. A 2-year-old child diagnosed with HIV comes to a clinic for immunizations. Which of the following vaccines should the nurse expect to administer in addition to the scheduled vaccines?
- A. pneumococcal vaccine
- B. hepatitis A vaccine
- C. Lyme disease vaccine
- D. typhoid vaccine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For a 2-year-old child diagnosed with HIV, in addition to the scheduled vaccines, the nurse should expect to administer the pneumococcal vaccine. Children with HIV are at an increased risk of infections, including pneumococcal disease. The pneumococcal vaccine helps protect against serious pneumococcal infections like pneumonia, meningitis, and bacteremia. The hepatitis A vaccine is not specifically recommended for all children with HIV unless there are specific risk factors. The Lyme disease vaccine is for individuals at risk for Lyme disease, typically between the ages of 15 and 70, transmitted by ticks. The typhoid vaccine is usually recommended for individuals traveling to endemic areas or working in specific high-risk occupations like microbiology laboratories dealing with Salmonella typhi.
2. In conducting a health screening for 12-month-old children, the nurse expects them to have been immunized against which of the following diseases?
- A. measles, polio, pertussis, hepatitis B
- B. diphtheria, pertussis, polio, tetanus
- C. rubella, polio, pertussis, hepatitis A
- D. measles, mumps, rubella, polio
Correct answer: B
Rationale: By 12 months of age, children should have received vaccines for diphtheria, pertussis, polio, and tetanus (DTaP and IPV). The correct answer is B as it includes these vaccines that are typically administered in the first year of life. Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccination usually begins at 12 months of age but is not expected to be completed by this time. Choices A and C are incorrect as they include diseases that are not part of the routine immunization schedule for a 12-month-old child.
3. A nurse is preparing to assist the healthcare provider in performing an internal gynecological examination of a client. In which position does the nurse place the client for this examination?
- A. Prone
- B. Left side-lying
- C. Sims
- D. Lithotomy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An internal gynecological examination is performed with the client in the lithotomy position. In this position, the client is supine, with the feet in stirrups, the knees apart, and the buttocks at the end of the examining table. The client is draped so that only the vulva is exposed. The lithotomy position provides optimal access for the healthcare provider to perform the examination effectively. The prone position refers to lying on the stomach, which is not suitable for a gynecological exam. The Sims position is a left side-lying position primarily used for administering enemas, not for gynecological examinations.
4. Which condition is associated with inadequate intake of vitamin C?
- A. rickets
- B. marasmus
- C. kwashiorkor
- D. scurvy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Scurvy is indeed associated with inadequate intake of vitamin C. Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy, which is characterized by weakness, anemia, gum disease, and skin hemorrhages. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because rickets is caused by vitamin D deficiency, marasmus is due to severe malnutrition leading to wasting, and kwashiorkor is a form of severe protein-energy malnutrition.
5. How often should the nurse change the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions?
- A. every 24 hours
- B. every 36 hours
- C. every 48 hours
- D. every 72 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'every 24 hours.' Changing the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions every 24 hours is crucial due to the high risk of bacterial growth. Bacterial contamination can lead to serious infections in patients receiving total parenteral nutrition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because waiting longer intervals between tubing changes increases the risk of bacterial contamination and infection, compromising patient safety. It is essential to maintain a strict 24-hour schedule to minimize the risk of complications associated with bacterial contamination.
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