Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for her clients when her new admit arrives on the unit. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Ask the nursing assistant to complete emptying the catheter bag and assess the new admission.
• B. Ask the nursing assistant to take vital signs on the new admit and begin the history until she can get there.
• C. Ask the graduate nurse on the floor to initiate the assessment process until she can get there.
• D. Ask the unit secretary to make the client and family comfortable until she can complete her present task.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate action for the nurse in this situation is to ask the graduate nurse on the floor to initiate the assessment process until she can arrive. Nursing assistants are not qualified to perform assessments, and the unit secretary's role does not involve client assessments. Delegating the assessment to the graduate nurse ensures that a qualified healthcare professional is evaluating the new admission, aligning with the nurse's responsibilities and providing appropriate care.

2. A client has been receiving cyanocobalamin (B12) injections for the past 6 weeks. Which laboratory finding indicates that the medication is having the desired effect?

• A. Neutrophil count of 60%
• B. Basophil count of 0.5%
• C. Monocyte count of 2%
• D. Reticulocyte count of 1%

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cyanocobalamin is a B12 medication used for pernicious anemia. A reticulocyte count of 1% indicates the desired effect of the medication, as reticulocytes are immature red blood cells that increase in response to B12 therapy, improving anemia. Neutrophils, basophils, and monocytes are white blood cells and are not directly influenced by B12 injections, making them incorrect choices.

3. What is the most common cause of acute renal failure?

• A. Shock
• B. Nephrotoxic drugs
• C. Enlarged prostate
• D. Diabetes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most common cause of acute renal failure is shock. In cases of shock, such as hypovolemic shock where there is low blood volume, the kidneys receive inadequate blood flow leading to acute renal failure. This can result in the kidneys starting to die within 20 minutes of low pressure. While nephrotoxic drugs can also cause acute renal failure, shock is more commonly associated with this condition. An enlarged prostate can lead to urinary retention but is not the most common cause of acute renal failure. Diabetes, on the other hand, can cause chronic kidney disease over time but is not typically the primary cause of acute renal failure.

4. Assessment of the client with an arteriovenous fistula for hemodialysis should include:

• A. inspection for visible pulsations.
• B. palpation of thrill.
• C. percussion for dullness.
• D. auscultation of blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to palpate for a thrill. A thrill should be present in a functioning arteriovenous fistula (AVF) and indicates good blood flow. The client should be educated to check for this sensation daily at home to monitor the AVF's patency. Visible pulsations are not typically observed in an AVF. Percussion for dullness does not provide relevant information about the AVF. Auscultation of blood pressure is not a standard practice in assessing an AVF. However, auscultation of the AVF for a bruit, a sound indicating turbulent blood flow, is crucial in evaluating the AVF's patency.

5. When caring for a client with a possible diagnosis of placenta previa, which of the following admission procedures should the nurse omit?

• A. perineal shave
• B. enema
• C. urine specimen collection
• D. blood specimen collection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'enema.' Administering an enema to a client with placenta previa can dislodge the placenta, leading to an increased risk of bleeding and complications. It is crucial to avoid any interventions that may disrupt the placenta's positioning. Collecting urine and blood specimens are necessary for diagnostic purposes and monitoring, while a perineal shave is a routine procedure that does not pose a risk to the client with placenta previa.

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