NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN 2023 Quizlet
1. Which of the following injuries, presented by a client entering the Emergency Department, is the highest priority?
- A. open leg fracture
- B. open head injury
- C. stab wound to the chest
- D. traumatic amputation of a thumb
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A stab wound to the chest is the highest priority injury. This type of injury can lead to lung collapse and mediastinal shift, potentially resulting in death if left untreated. Treating an obstructed airway or a chest wound takes precedence over addressing hemorrhage. The principle of ABC (airway, breathing, and circulation) guides care decisions in prioritizing life-threatening situations. An open leg fracture, open head injury, and traumatic amputation of a thumb, while serious, do not pose an immediate threat to life compared to a stab wound to the chest. An open leg fracture may lead to significant blood loss but is not immediately life-threatening. An open head injury requires assessment and intervention but does not impact airway, breathing, or circulation directly. Traumatic amputation of a thumb is a serious injury but can be managed after addressing more life-threatening conditions.
2. A nurse is caring for a client with an elevated urine osmolarity. The nurse should assess the client for:
- A. fluid volume excess.
- B. hyperkalemia.
- C. hypercalcemia.
- D. fluid volume deficit.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elevated urine osmolarity indicates that the urine is concentrated, suggesting the body is trying to conserve water. This commonly occurs in conditions like dehydration or fluid volume deficit. Assessing the client for fluid volume excess, hyperkalemia, or hypercalcemia would not be the priority in this situation. Therefore, the correct answer is to assess the client for fluid volume deficit. Fluid volume excess is characterized by decreased urine osmolarity, while hyperkalemia and hypercalcemia are related to electrolyte imbalances and would not directly cause elevated urine osmolarity.
3. What vitamin is important in preventing peripheral neuritis in a client with alcohol abuse?
- A. Vitamin D
- B. Fat-soluble vitamins
- C. B vitamins
- D. Potassium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fat-soluble vitamins.' Vitamin B, not Vitamin D, is crucial in preventing peripheral neuritis in individuals with alcohol abuse. Vitamin B deficiency, particularly B1 (thiamine), is commonly associated with peripheral neuritis in alcoholics. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Vitamin D is not directly related to peripheral neuritis, and potassium deficiency typically presents with different symptoms.
4. Which of the following needs immediate medical attention and emergency intervention? The client who:
- A. complains of sharp pain upon taking a deep breath and excessive coughing.
- B. exhibits yellow, productive sputum, low-grade fever, and crackles.
- C. has a shift of the trachea to the left, with no breath sounds on the right.
- D. has asthma and complains of an inability to catch her breath after exercise.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is indicative of a tension pneumothorax, which is considered a medical emergency. The respiratory system is severely compromised, and venous return to the heart is affected. The mediastinal shift is to the unaffected side, indicating a critical situation that requires immediate intervention to prevent further deterioration. This condition can rapidly progress to a life-threatening state, necessitating prompt medical attention. Choices A, B, and D do not present with life-threatening conditions requiring emergency intervention. Choice A mentions symptoms of pleurisy, which may be painful but not immediately life-threatening. Choice B describes symptoms of bronchitis, which may require medical attention but not of an emergent nature. Choice D reflects a common complaint in asthma but does not suggest an immediate life-threatening situation unless severe respiratory distress is present.
5. A nurse working in a pediatric clinic observes the following situations. Which of the following may indicate a delayed child to the nurse?
- A. A 12-month-old that does not 'cruise'.
- B. An 8-month-old that can sit upright unsupported.
- C. A 6-month-old that is rolling prone to supine.
- D. A 3-month-old that does not roll supine to prone.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'A 12-month-old that does not 'cruise''. At 12 months, a child should at least be 'cruising' (holding on to objects to walk), which is considered pre-walking. The other choices describe age-appropriate developmental milestones: sitting upright unsupported by 8 months, rolling prone to supine by 6 months, and rolling supine to prone by 3 months. Not 'cruising' at 12 months may indicate a delay in motor skills development.
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