a client has a 10 dextrose in water iv solution running he is scheduled to receive his antiepileptic drug phenytoin dilantin at this time the nurse kn
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Quizlet NCLEX PN 2023

1. A client has a 10% dextrose in water IV solution running. He is scheduled to receive his antiepileptic drug, phenytoin (Dilantin), at this time. The nurse knows that the phenytoin:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Phenytoin is incompatible with dextrose solutions as they will precipitate when mixed together. Therefore, it should not be piggybacked into the D10W solution or given through the same port. Instead, normal saline should be used to flush before and after administering phenytoin to prevent any interaction with the dextrose solution. Delaying the administration of an antiepileptic drug like phenytoin to maintain therapeutic blood levels is not recommended, so it should not be given after the D10W is finished or based on the medication port closest to the client. Choice A is incorrect because administering phenytoin after the D10W is finished is not the correct approach due to the incompatibility with dextrose solutions. Choice B is incorrect as the timing of phenytoin administration should not be based on the medication port closest to the client but on compatibility considerations. Choice C is incorrect as piggybacking phenytoin into the D10W solution is not advisable due to the incompatibility issue.

2. Which infection control measure is the priority for the nurse to implement in the care provided for a child admitted to the hospital with bacterial meningitis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority control measure for the nurse to implement in caring for a child with bacterial meningitis is ensuring that gowns and masks are worn by all personnel in the child's room. This measure is crucial as the child with bacterial meningitis is contagious for at least 24 hours after starting antibiotics, necessitating airborne precautions to prevent the spread of infection to healthcare workers and other patients. Placing the child in a private room (Choice A) is important but secondary to preventing infection transmission. Restricting visitors to parents only (Choice C) is also significant but not as critical as ensuring proper infection control measures. While hand washing (Choice D) is essential, the immediate need to prevent airborne transmission in the child's room takes precedence.

3. A client is admitted to the critical care unit after suffering from a massive cerebral vascular accident. The client's vital signs include BP 160/110, HR 42, Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Based on this assessment, the nurse anticipates the client to be in which acid-base balance?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is exhibiting Cheyne-Stokes respirations, which are characterized by periods of deep breathing alternating with apnea. This pattern indicates respiratory insufficiency, resulting in an accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood. The elevated BP and slow heart rate further support the respiratory insufficiency, leading to respiratory acidosis. Therefore, the correct answer is Respiratory acidosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Respiratory alkalosis is characterized by decreased carbon dioxide levels in the blood, which is not indicated by the client's presentation. Metabolic acidosis results from conditions such as renal failure or diabetic ketoacidosis and is not the primary imbalance in this case. Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by elevated pH and bicarbonate levels, which are not present in the client's vital signs.

4. The client is taking Antabuse and should avoid eating foods that may trigger a disulfiram reaction. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client taking Antabuse should avoid foods that contain alcohol or vinegar as they can trigger a disulfiram reaction. Pickles and vinaigrette dressing often contain vinegar, which the client should avoid. Beef is safe to consume. Choices A, B, and D do not contain alcohol or vinegar, so they are allowed for the client taking Antabuse.

5. When planning care for a client taking Heparin, which nursing diagnosis should the nurse address first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for injury related to active loss of blood from the vascular space.' When a client is taking Heparin, the primary concern is the risk of bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties. Monitoring for signs of active blood loss is crucial to prevent complications like hemorrhage. While ineffective tissue perfusion, deficient knowledge, and impaired skin integrity are important, they are secondary to the immediate risk of bleeding in clients taking anticoagulants like Heparin.

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