NCLEX-PN
Nclex PN Questions and Answers
1. While assisting a healthcare provider in assessing a hospitalized client, the healthcare provider is paged to report to the recovery room. The healthcare provider instructs the nurse verbally to change the solution and rate of the intravenous (IV) fluid being administered. What is the most appropriate nursing action in this situation?
- A. Calling the nursing supervisor to obtain permission to accept the verbal prescription
- B. Asking the healthcare provider to write the prescription in the client's record before leaving the nursing unit
- C. Telling the healthcare provider that the prescription will not be implemented until it is documented in the client's record
- D. Changing the solution and rate of the IV fluid per the healthcare provider's verbal prescription
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Verbal prescriptions should be avoided due to the risk of errors. If a verbal prescription is necessary, it should be promptly written and signed by the healthcare provider, typically within 24 hours. Following agency policies and procedures regarding verbal prescriptions is crucial. In this scenario, the most appropriate nursing action is to request the healthcare provider to document the prescription in the client's record before leaving the unit. Calling the nursing supervisor to accept the verbal prescription without documentation, telling the healthcare provider to delay treatment until documented, and directly changing the IV fluid based on verbal orders all pose risks and do not align with best practices in medication administration.
2. For which condition might a client's antidiuretic hormone (ADH) level be increased?
- A. diabetes mellitus
- B. diabetes insipidus
- C. hypothyroidism
- D. hyperthyroidism
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is diabetes insipidus. In this condition, the client's ADH level is increased. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the inability of the kidneys to conserve water due to either inadequate secretion of ADH (central diabetes insipidus) or the kidneys' inability to respond to ADH (nephrogenic diabetes insipidus). Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. In diabetes mellitus, ADH levels are typically normal or elevated in response to high blood sugar levels. Hypothyroidism is not directly related to ADH secretion. In hyperthyroidism, ADH levels are usually normal or decreased.
3. Which of these should not be included when calculating a client's fluid intake?
- A. ice chips
- B. Jell-O™
- C. pudding
- D. IV fluid from an antibiotic piggyback
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pudding is a semi-solid and does not contribute significantly to fluid intake as it does not melt at room temperature. Therefore, it should not be included in fluid intake calculations. On the other hand, ice chips, Jell-O™, and IV fluid from an antibiotic piggyback are all sources of fluid that can significantly contribute to a client's total fluid intake and should be considered when calculating it. Ice chips and Jell-O™ provide hydration upon melting, while IV fluid directly adds to the fluid volume in the body.
4. When caring for clients with Buck’s Traction, the major areas of importance should be:
- A. nutrition, elimination, comfort, safety
- B. ROM exercises, transportation
- C. nutrition, elimination, comfort, safety
- D. elimination, safety, isotonic exercises
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When caring for clients with Buck’s Traction, the major areas of importance should be nutrition, elimination, comfort, and safety. Proper nutrition, including a diet high in protein with adequate fluids, is essential for healing and recovery. Elimination refers to maintaining regular bowel and bladder function. Comfort is crucial to ensure the patient's well-being while in traction, and safety measures should be followed to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. ROM exercises are not typically a primary concern with Buck’s Traction, making choices A and B incorrect. Isotonic exercises are not specifically related to the care of a client in Buck's Traction, making choice D incorrect.
5. Which of the following clients would be most appropriate for an LPN to assign to a nursing assistant?
- A. an 18-year-old client with a femur fracture who is just returning to the floor from the recovery unit
- B. an 84-year-old client 2 days post-op after knee replacement surgery who needs help ambulating
- C. a 35-year-old client who is suffering from an acute asthma attack
- D. a 20-year-old client with Cystic Fibrosis who needs an early morning sputum sample collection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Collecting sputum samples on stable clients is within the scope of practice for an LPN. This task does not require immediate intervention or assessment by an RN or medical provider. An RN should perform the initial assessment on any client immediately post-op as it requires a higher level of assessment and monitoring. A client suffering from an acute asthma attack should be attended to by an RN or medical provider due to the potential severity and need for prompt intervention. Assigning a medically stable client who needs help ambulating to a nursing assistant is appropriate as it falls within their scope of practice and allows the LPN to focus on tasks that require their expertise.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access